Q1. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to enact legislation for giving effect to any international treaty, agreement, or convention?

1. Article 249
2. Article 253
3. Article 250
4. Article 252

Q2. Which Constitutional Amendment Act created the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) under Article 338A, separating it from the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)?

1. 86th Constitutional Amendment Act
2. 91st Constitutional Amendment Act
3. 89th Constitutional Amendment Act
4. 97th Constitutional Amendment Act

Q3. Which doctrine of constitutional interpretation is applied when a law, though dealing with a subject in another list, is in its true nature and character entirely within the competence of the legislature that enacted it?

1. Doctrine of Eclipse
2. Doctrine of Severability
3. Doctrine of Pith and Substance
4. Doctrine of Colorable Legislation

Q4. Which specific clause of the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A of the Indian Constitution emphasizes the duty to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture?

1. Article 51A(a)
2. Article 51A(f)
3. Article 51A(d)
4. Article 51A(h)

Q5. Which Article under the Directive Principles of State Policy directs the State to secure the separation of the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State?

1. Article 44
2. Article 50
3. Article 48A
4. Article 51

Q6. Which Article of the Indian Constitution outlines the consequences of the failure of a State to comply with, or to give effect to, directions given by the Union?

1. Article 352
2. Article 360
3. Article 365
4. Article 356

Q7. What is the parliamentary term used for the last session of an existing Lok Sabha after a new Lok Sabha has already been elected?

1. Sine Die Session
2. Lame-Duck Session
3. Prorogation Session
4. Quorum Session

Q8. Which landmark Supreme Court judgment of 1994 laid down stringent guidelines regarding the imposition of President's Rule under Article 356 to prevent its misuse?

1. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
2. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
3. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
4. Golaknath v. State of Punjab

Q9. Which Article of the Indian Constitution establishes the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?

1. Article 76
2. Article 148
3. Article 280
4. Article 324

Q10. Who has the constitutional authority to determine the conditions of service and tenure of office of the Election Commissioners of India?

1. The Parliament
2. The Chief Justice of India
3. The Prime Minister
4. The President of India

Q11. Who was the founder of the 'Social Service League' established in Bombay in 1911?

1. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
2. Narayan Malhar Joshi
3. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
4. Mahadev Govind Ranade

Q12. Who founded the 'All India Depressed Classes Congress' in 1930 to represent the interests of the untouchables at the national level?

1. Mahatma Gandhi
2. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
3. Jyotiba Phule
4. E.V. Ramasamy

Q13. Which British Governor-General of India introduced the system of the 'Civil Services' in its modern form, often referred to as the 'Father of Civil Services in India'?

1. Lord Dalhousie
2. Lord Cornwallis
3. Lord Wellesley
4. Lord William Bentinck

Q14. Who among the Assamese pioneers was the first to graduate with a Bachelor of Arts degree from Calcutta University in 1869?

1. Jagannath Barooah
2. Hemchandra Barua
3. Anundoram Borooah
4. Maniram Dewan

Q15. Who was the founder editor of the revolutionary Assamese journal 'Assam Bilasini' first published in 1871?

1. Nathan Brown
2. Padmanath Gohain Baruah
3. Duttadeb Goswami
4. Hemchandra Goswami

Q16. In which year did the British colonial administration annex the fertile plains of Cachar under the principle of Lapse after the assassination of Govinda Chandra?

1. 1826
2. 1832
3. 1838
4. 1854

Q17. Who founded the social service organization 'Seva Samiti' in Allahabad in 1914?

1. Madan Mohan Malaviya
2. Annie Besant
3. Hridayanath Kunzru
4. Swami Vivekananda

Q18. Which British Viceroy was in office during the historic execution of Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev, and Rajguru in 1931?

1. Lord Reading
2. Lord Irwin
3. Lord Willingdon
4. Lord Linlithgow

Q19. Which act of the British Parliament officially ended the commercial monopoly of the East India Company in India entirely?

1. Regulating Act of 1773
2. Charter Act of 1813
3. Charter Act of 1833
4. Government of India Act 1858

Q20. Which Assamese freedom fighter, author of 'Byarthatar Daan', was a pioneer of the trade union movement and heavily involved in revolutionary activities in Assam?

1. Bishnu Prasad Rabha
2. Lakshmidhar Sarma
3. Tarun Ram Phukan
4. Omeo Kumar Das

Q21. What is the economic term for the total market value of all final goods and services produced by the residents of a country, minus net factor income from abroad, over a given period?

1. Gross National Product
2. Net Domestic Product
3. Gross Domestic Product
4. National Income

Q22. What is the mathematical formula to calculate Personal Disposable Income (PDI) from Personal Income (PI)?

1. PDI = Personal Income - Indirect Taxes
2. PDI = Personal Income + Subsidies
3. PDI = Personal Income - Direct Taxes - Miscellaneous Fees/Fines
4. PDI = National Income - Corporate Taxes

Q23. Which economic curve represents the short-run inverse relationship between the rate of inflation and the rate of unemployment?

1. Laffer Curve
2. Lorenz Curve
3. Kuznets Curve
4. Phillips Curve

Q24. Which economic indicator measures the responsiveness of the demand for a good to a change in the consumer's income?

1. Price Elasticity of Demand
2. Income Elasticity of Demand
3. Cross Elasticity of Demand
4. Supply Elasticity

Q25. Which monetary policy tool of the RBI refers to the selling and buying of government securities to regulate liquidity, distinct from standard Open Market Operations?

1. Statutory Liquidity Ratio
2. Marginal Standing Facility
3. Market Stabilization Scheme
4. Bank Rate

Q26. In the Union Budget, which specific document provides a detailed, three-year forward-looking projection of fiscal indicators under the FRBM Act?

1. Macro-Economic Framework Statement
2. Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement
3. Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement
4. Annual Financial Statement

Q27. Which Five-Year Plan of India emphasized the objective of 'Self-Reliance and Zero Net Foreign Aid' for the first time?

1. Second Five-Year Plan
2. Third Five-Year Plan
3. Fourth Five-Year Plan
4. Fifth Five-Year Plan

Q28. Which planning model, characterized by an emphasis on decentralization and employment generation, was drafted by the Janata Party government in 1978?

1. Gandhian Plan
2. Rolling Plan
3. Bombay Plan
4. People's Plan

Q29. What is the term for a tax that is imposed on the value added at each stage of production and distribution of a product?

1. Corporate Tax
2. Value Added Tax
3. Wealth Tax
4. Excise Duty

Q30. What is the term for the target rate of inflation that the RBI is legally mandated to maintain under the monetary policy framework agreement?

1. 2 percent
2. 4 percent
3. 6 percent
4. 8 percent

Q31. Which Assamese writer was awarded the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1968 for her poetry collection 'Alakananda'?

1. Mamoni Raisom Goswami
2. Nirmal Prabha Bordoloi
3. Nalini Bala Devi
4. Anuradha Sharma Pujari

Q32. Who is the author of the famous biographical book 'Mor Jivan Sonaran', which chronicles early Assamese social life?

1. Hemchandra Barua
2. Lakshminath Bezbaroa
3. Padmanath Gohain Baruah
4. Syed Abdul Malik

Q33. Which autonomous council was established in Assam in 1995 to administer the developmental needs of the Mising ethnic community?

1. Bodoland Territorial Council
2. Rabha Hasong Autonomous Council
3. Mising Autonomous Council
4. Tiwa Autonomous Council

Q34. Which major national park of Assam is bounded by the Jia Bhoreli River on the west?

1. Manas National Park
2. Orang National Park
3. Nameri National Park
4. Dibru-Saikhowa National Park

Q35. What is the name of the traditional drum made of a wooden body, played with both hands during the Bihu festival in Assam?

1. Khol
2. Doba
3. Dhol
4. Nagara

Q36. Which Assamese poet is popularly called 'Bihugi Kobi' in the history of Assamese literature?

1. Raghunath Choudhary
2. Jatindranath Duwara
3. Ambikagiri Raichoudhury
4. Ananda Chandra Agarwala

Q37. Who was the second writer from Assam to receive the prestigious Jnanpith Award in 2000?

1. Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya
2. Nilmani Phookan Jr.
3. Bhabendra Nath Saikia
4. Indira Goswami

Q38. Which is the largest district of Assam by land area according to official geographical records?

1. Sonitpur
2. Karbi Anglong
3. Tinsukia
4. Dima Hasao

Q39. What is the traditional name of the end-blown bamboo flute commonly played during Bihu festivals in Assam?

1. Pepa
2. Gogona
3. Baanhi
4. Tokari

Q40. Which prominent female social reformer of Assam founded the 'Asam Pradeshik Mahila Samiti' in 1926?

1. Kanaklata Barua
2. Pushpalata Das
3. Amalprabha Das
4. Chandraprabha Saikiani

Q41. Which legendary Assamese writer wrote the satirical series 'Kripabor Boruar Kakotor Topola'?

1. Hemchandra Barua
2. Lakshminath Bezbaroa
3. Anandaram Dhekial Phukan
4. Gunabhiram Barua

Q42. Which autonomous council in Assam was established under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution to govern the Dima Hasao district?

1. Bodoland Territorial Council
2. Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council
3. North Cachar Hills Autonomous Council
4. Thengal Kachari Autonomous Council

Q43. In which district of Assam is the Chakrashila Wildlife Sanctuary, the famous habitat of the golden langur, located?

1. Kokrajhar
2. Bongaigaon
3. Dhubri
4. Goalpara

Q44. Which major post-harvest festival is celebrated by the Deori community of Assam with traditional dances?

1. Ali-Aye-Ligang
2. Bwisagu
3. Deori Bihu
4. Me-Dam-Me-Phi

Q45. Who was the first Assamese president of the Indian National Congress?

1. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
2. Gopinath Bordoloi
3. Devakanta Barua
4. Bishnuram Medhi

Q46. Where is the headquarters of the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) located?

1. Geneva, Switzerland
2. Montreal, Canada
3. London, UK
4. New York, USA

Q47. Which narrow strait separates the North and South Islands of New Zealand?

1. Bass Strait
2. Torres Strait
3. Cook Strait
4. Palk Strait

Q48. In which year was the United Nations officially established in San Francisco?

1. 1944
2. 1945
3. 1946
4. 1948

Q49. Which animal is recognized as the national symbol and emblem of the United States of America?

1. Grizzly Bear
2. Bald Eagle
3. Bison
4. Golden Lion

Q50. What is the capital and the official currency of Switzerland?

1. Zurich & Euro
2. Geneva & Franc
3. Bern & Swiss Franc
4. Basel & Krone

Q51. According to the ITU's Global Cybersecurity Index 2024, what was India's tier ranking?

1. Tier 1
2. Tier 2
3. Tier 3
4. Tier 4

Q52. Which scheme was launched by the Ministry of Education in 2024 to provide high-quality digital education and skill resources to students in rural schools?

1. Swayam Plus
2. Prerna Scheme
3. PM SHRI
4. Vidyanjali

Q53. Which country hosted the CHOGM (Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting) in October 2024?

1. Rwanda
2. Samoa
3. United Kingdom
4. Australia

Q54. Which country is the host for the COP16 UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) held in December 2024?

1. United Arab Emirates
2. Egypt
3. Saudi Arabia
4. India

Q55. Which city is the venue for the G20 Summit in November 2024?

1. New Delhi
2. Johannesburg
3. Rio de Janeiro
4. Bali

Q56. Which Indian shooter won two Bronze medals at the Paris 2024 Olympic Games?

1. Saurabh Chaudhary
2. Manu Bhaker
3. Aishwarya Pratap Singh
4. Esha Singh

Q57. Who was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 2024 for the discovery of microRNA?

1. Katalin Karikó and Drew Weissman
2. Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun
3. Svante Pääbo
4. David Julius and Ardem Patapoutian

Q58. Who took office as the new Director General of the World Health Organization (WHO) for a second term in 2022?

1. António Guterres
2. Margaret Chan
3. Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala
4. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus

Q59. Which flagship central government scheme, launched in 2019, aims to provide tap water connection to every rural household in India by 2024?

1. PM Krishi Sinchayee Yojana
2. Amrit Sarovar Mission
3. Jal Jeevan Mission
4. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan

Q60. Which Assamese non-feature film directed by Kulanandini Mahanta won the Best Non-Feature Film award at the 69th National Film Awards?

1. Fireflies
2. Hathibondha
3. Bulbul Can Sing
4. Village Rockstars

Q61. What is the SI unit of luminous intensity?

1. Lumen
2. Lux
3. Candela
4. Watt

Q62. What is the chemical name of the acid present in abundance in citrus fruits like lemons and limes?

1. Acetic Acid
2. Citric Acid
3. Lactic Acid
4. Tartaric Acid

Q63. Which blood group is known as the 'Universal Donor' because its red blood cells do not have A, B, or Rh antigens?

1. O Positive
2. AB Negative
3. O Negative
4. AB Positive

Q64. What is the physical unit used to measure the pitch or frequency of sound?

1. Decibel
2. Hertz
3. Pascal
4. Joule

Q65. What is the common chemical name of the protective compound layer that forms on copper objects when they corrode in moist air, giving them a green color?

1. Copper Oxide
2. Copper Sulphate
3. Basic Copper Carbonate
4. Copper Chloride

Directions: In the following question, two statements are given followed by a conclusion. Read the statements carefully and determine if the conclusion logically follows.

Q66. Statements: Some students are players. All players are athletes.
Conclusion: Are some students athletes?

1. Yes
2. No
3. Data Inadequate
4. Either Yes or No

Directions: Read the short passage below and answer the critical reasoning question that follows.

Q67. A business consultant noticed that companies that implemented flexible working hours experienced a 20% increase in productivity. The consultant concluded that flexible hours directly improve work efficiency. What is the primary logical flaw in this conclusion?

1. It assumes 20% is a significant enough increase to matter.
2. It assumes that flexible hours are the sole cause of productivity, ignoring other factors like management quality or employee morale.
3. It suggests that employees working fixed hours are lazy.
4. It uses mathematical data to prove a psychological point.

Directions: Determine whether the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the question.

Q68. Question: Is the integer X positive?
Statement I: X - 5 is a positive integer.
Statement II: X + 5 is a positive integer.
Which statement(s) is/are sufficient to answer?

1. Statement II alone is sufficient
2. Both statements together are required
3. Statement I alone is sufficient
4. Neither statement is sufficient

Directions: A statement is given followed by two assumptions. Identify which assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.

Q69. Statement: 'Please wear a mask before entering the hospital ward.' - A hospital notice.
Assumption I: Wearing a mask prevents the spread of infection.
Assumption II: People will follow the instructions mentioned in the hospital notice.
Which assumption(s) is/are implicit?

1. Only Assumption I is implicit
2. Only Assumption II is implicit
3. Both assumptions I and II are implicit
4. Neither assumption is implicit

Directions: Determine if the conclusion logically follows the given statement.

Q70. Statement: Only candidates who clear the preliminary round can appear for the main exam. Rahul appeared for the main exam.
Conclusion: Rahul cleared the preliminary round.
Does this conclusion follow?

1. No
2. Yes
3. Data Inadequate
4. Either Yes or No

Q71. If 'BOARD' is coded as 'CPBSE' in a certain system, how is 'CHAIR' coded in that same system?

1. DIBJS
2. EJCKS
3. BGZHQ
4. DHBKS

Q72. P is the brother of Q. Q is the sister of R. R is the son of S. How is P related to S?

1. Nephew
2. Father
3. Brother
4. Son

Q73. A person starts from point A and walks 24 km North, then turns left and walks 7 km. What is the shortest distance between his starting point and ending point?

1. 31 km
2. 17 km
3. 25 km
4. 28 km

Q74. Find the next number in the series: 4, 10, 18, 28, 40, ?

1. 52
2. 54
3. 56
4. 58

Q75. Complete the alphabet series: AZ, CX, EV, GT, ?

1. HS
2. IR
3. JQ
4. KP

Q76. Five friends A, B, C, D, and E sit in a row facing North. A sits immediately to the left of B. C sits to the immediate right of B. D sits to the immediate left of E. If E is at the right end of the row, who sits in the middle?

1. B
2. D
3. C
4. A

Q77. In a machine input-output system, an input '20 50 90 30' is rearranged as '90 50 30 20' in step 1. If the input is '80 40 100 20', what is the final step arranged in descending order?

1. 100 20 40 80
2. 100 80 40 20
3. 20 40 80 100
4. 80 100 40 20

Q78. A study showed that introducing hybrid work options reduced employee turnover by 40%, but the physical office energy costs dropped by only 5%. Which of the following, if true, best explains why the energy cost drop was so small?

1. Essential office systems like servers and heating had to run continuously regardless of occupancy
2. Most employees preferred to work from home on Mondays and Fridays
3. The company invested heavily in cloud storage solutions
4. Employees who came to the office worked longer hours than before

Directions: A statement is given followed by two assumptions. Decide which assumption(s) is/are implicit.

Q79. Statement: 'Use organic pesticides to prevent crop disease without harming the soil.' - An agriculture expert.
Assumption I: Chemical pesticides harm the soil.
Assumption II: Farmers want to protect the soil from harm.
Which assumption(s) is/are implicit?

1. Neither I nor II is implicit
2. Only Assumption I is implicit
3. Both I and II are implicit
4. Only Assumption II is implicit

Directions: Read the statements carefully and determine if the conclusion logically follows.

Q80. Statements: Some doctors are poets. All poets are artists. No artist is a driver.
Conclusion: Are some doctors not drivers?

1. Data Inadequate
2. Either Yes or No
3. No
4. Yes

Q81. If 'INK' is coded as 'JOL' in a certain system, how is the word 'PEN' coded in that same system?

1. QFO
2. ODQ
3. RGP
4. QEP

Q82. Introducing a lady, a man said, 'She is the mother of the only daughter of my father's wife.' How is the lady related to the man?

1. Aunt
2. Mother
3. Wife
4. Sister

Q83. A person starts from point A and walks 12 km West, then turns North and walks 5 km. What is the shortest distance between his starting point and ending point?

1. 7 km
2. 17 km
3. 13 km
4. 15 km

Q84. Five cars are parked in a row. Car A is to the left of B. Car C is between A and D. Car E is at the right end of the row. If D is immediately left of B, which car is in the middle?

1. C
2. A
3. D
4. B

Directions: Determine whether the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the question.

Q85. Question: What is the age of Sham?
Statement I: Sham is 3 years younger than Ram.
Statement II: Ram is 20 years old.
Which statement(s) is/are sufficient to answer?

1. Neither statement is sufficient
2. Both statements I and II together are sufficient
3. Statement I alone is sufficient
4. Statement II alone is sufficient

Q86. Find the unit digit of the expression: 157²¹ × 158²¹.

1. 4
2. 8
3. 6
4. 2

Q87. The population of a town increases by 10% annually. If the current population is 20000, what will be the population after 2 years?

1. 24200
2. 22000
3. 24000
4. 24400

Q88. Two numbers are in the ratio 3:5. If 9 is subtracted from each, the ratio becomes 12:23. Find the smaller number.

1. 33
2. 45
3. 27
4. 39

Q89. A man sells a watch at a profit of 10%. If he had bought it for 10% less and sold it for Rs 60 less, he would have gained 20%. Find the cost price of the watch.

1. Rs 2500
2. Rs 4000
3. Rs 3500
4. Rs 3000

Q90. A sum of money invested at simple interest doubles itself in 6 years. In how many years will it become 4 times itself?

1. 24 years
2. 12 years
3. 18 years
4. 20 years

Q91. Find the compound interest on a sum of Rs 8000 for 1 year at 10% per annum, compounded half-yearly.

1. Rs 800
2. Rs 820
3. Rs 840
4. Rs 810

Q92. A and B working together can complete a work in 8 days. If A alone can do it in 12 days, how many days will B take to complete the work alone?

1. 16 days
2. 24 days
3. 18 days
4. 20 days

Q93. A train 150 meters long passes a pole in 9 seconds. What is the speed of the train in km/h?

1. 72 km/h
2. 60 km/h
3. 54 km/h
4. 45 km/h

Q94. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'APPLE' be arranged?

1. 120 ways
2. 60 ways
3. 24 ways
4. 48 ways

Q95. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting a sum of exactly 9?

1. 1/6
2. 1/9
3. 1/12
4. 1/4

Q96. Find the area of a right-angled triangle whose base is 15 cm and hypotenuse is 17 cm.

1. 60 sq cm
2. 120 sq cm
3. 68 sq cm
4. 85 sq cm

Q97. The perimeter of a square is equal to the circumference of a circle. If the side of the square is 22 cm, find the radius of the circle.

1. 14 cm
2. 7 cm
3. 21 cm
4. 28 cm

Directions: Study the data table given below carefully and answer the questions (Q98-Q102).

The table shows the crop production (in metric tons) in four different states of India in a particular year.

Q98. Using the crop production table, what is the total production of Wheat across all four states combined?

1. 1200 metric tons
2. 1600 metric tons
3. 1500 metric tons
4. 1400 metric tons

Q99. What is the ratio of total crop production in Punjab to that in Bihar?

1. 5:4
2. 4:3
3. 3:2
4. 6:5

Q100. The production of Rice in UP is what percentage more than the production of Rice in Punjab?

1. 20%
2. 25%
3. 15%
4. 30%

Q101. What is the average production of Maize per state across all four states?

1. 162.5 metric tons
2. 150 metric tons
3. 175.5 metric tons
4. 180 metric tons

Q102. Which state has the lowest total crop production across all three crops combined?

1. Bihar
2. Haryana
3. Punjab
4. UP

Q103. Find the value of x if 3^x+2 × 9^x = 243.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 1
4. 0

Q104. Pipe A can fill a tank in 12 hours and Pipe B can fill it in 18 hours. If both are opened together, how many hours will they take to fill the empty tank?

1. 7.5 hours
2. 8 hours
3. 6.5 hours
4. 7.2 hours

Q105. Find the simple interest on Rs 6000 at 5% per annum for 4 years.

1. Rs 1200
2. Rs 1500
3. Rs 1000
4. Rs 1800

Q106. Find the area of a circle whose diameter is 28 cm (Take π = 22/7).

1. 2464 sq cm
2. 616 sq cm
3. 154 sq cm
4. 308 sq cm

Q107. A can do a work in 12 days and B can do the same work in 18 days. If they work together, in how many days can they complete the work?

1. 8 days
2. 7.2 days
3. 6.5 days
4. 9 days

Q108. Two cards are drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that both are aces?

1. 1/221
2. 1/169
3. 2/51
4. 1/52

Q109. Find the volume of a cylinder whose radius is 7 cm and height is 10 cm (Take π = 22/7).

1. 770 cubic cm
2. 3080 cubic cm
3. 1540 cubic cm
4. 1250 cubic cm

Q110. Find the area of a square whose perimeter is 48 cm.

1. 144 sq cm
2. 196 sq cm
3. 256 sq cm
4. 121 sq cm

Q111. If A:B = 3:4 and B:C = 8:9, find the ratio A:C.

1. 3:4
2. 2:3
3. 8:9
4. 1:2

Q112. An article bought for Rs 500 is sold for Rs 600. Find the profit percentage.

1. 25%
2. 15%
3. 30%
4. 20%

Q113. A sum of money amounts to Rs 6000 in 2 years and Rs 8000 in 4 years at simple interest. Find the principal sum.

1. Rs 4000
2. Rs 5000
3. Rs 4500
4. Rs 3500

Q114. Find the compound interest on Rs 5000 for 2 years at 10% per annum, compounded annually.

1. Rs 1000
2. Rs 1050
3. Rs 1100
4. Rs 1200

Q115. A train 200 meters long is running at a speed of 72 km/h. How much time will it take to cross a platform of length 200 meters?

1. 25 seconds
2. 15 seconds
3. 20 seconds
4. 30 seconds

Q116. Identify the correct improvement for the underlined part: 'He works hard lest he may fail.'

1. lest he could fail
2. lest he will fail
3. lest he should fail
4. No improvement

Q117. Fill in the blank with the appropriate preposition: 'He died _____ overeating.'

1. from
2. of
3. by
4. with

Q118. What is the meaning of the word 'Ebullient'?

1. Lazy and sluggish
2. Arrogant and boastful
3. Cheerful and full of energy
4. Angry and aggressive

Q119. Find the grammatical error in the sentence: 'She behaves as if she knows everything.'

1. 'behaves' should be 'behave'
2. 'she knows' should be 'she knew'
3. 'everything' should be 'anything'
4. No error

Q120. What is the past participle form of the verb 'Shrink'?

1. Shrinks
2. Shrank
3. Shrunken
4. Shrunk

Q121. Identify the correct improvement for the underlined part: 'The patient died before the doctor arrived.'

1. has died
2. had died
3. is dead
4. No improvement

Q122. Fill in the blank with the correct verb: 'None of the solutions _____ to work.'

1. seems
2. seeming
3. are seeming
4. have seemed

Q123. What is the antonym of the word 'Melancholy'?

1. Cheerful
2. Sorrowful
3. Gloomy
4. Depressed

Q124. Find the error in the sentence: 'He preferred coffee than tea in the morning.'

1. 'than' should be 'to'
2. 'preferred' should be 'prefer'
3. 'in the morning' should be 'at morning'
4. No error

Q125. Identify the part of speech of the underlined word: 'The book was lying under the desk.'

1. Adverb
2. Conjunction
3. Preposition
4. Adjective

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow (Q126-Q130).

The commercial discovery of tea in Assam by the British in the early 19th century sparked a frenzy of plantation investments. However, the initial expansion of these tea gardens was severely constrained by a critical shortage of local labor. The indigenous Assamese peasants were largely reluctant to work in the British tea gardens because they possessed self-sufficient landholdings under their traditional agricultural system, which met their basic needs. To resolve this labor crisis, the British colonial government initiated a massive and highly organized system of forced indentured immigration. Thousands of poverty-stricken laborers from central and eastern India were transported to Assam under oppressive, harsh, and highly demanding working conditions. This massive influx not only stabilized the tea industry but also fundamentally transformed the socio-demographic fabric of the province forever.

Q126. According to the passage, what major factor constrained the initial expansion of tea plantations in Assam?

1. Poor soil quality
2. Lack of financial investment
3. Shortage of local labor
4. Hostility of the local kings

Q127. Why were local Assamese peasants reluctant to work in the British tea gardens?

1. They were strictly banned by the colonial government
2. They possessed self-sufficient landholdings under their traditional agricultural system
3. They demanded exorbitant daily wages
4. They lacked the physical strength to work in gardens

Q128. What does the word 'oppressive' in the passage suggest about the working conditions?

1. Harsh, brutal, and highly demanding
2. Comfortable and highly rewarding
3. Technologically advanced
4. Flexible and employee-friendly

Q129. How did the British colonial government resolve the labor crisis in the tea plantations?

1. By heavily taxing the local Assamese peasants
2. By replacing manual labor with heavy machinery
3. By initiating the forced indentured immigration of laborers from Central and Eastern India
4. By abandoning the tea plantations entirely

Q130. What was the long-term impact of the imported indentured labor on the province of Assam?

1. It transformed the socio-demographic fabric of the province forever
2. It caused the tea industry to immediately collapse
3. It forced the British to leave the province
4. It resulted in a permanent ban on immigration

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow (Q131-Q135).

Sustainable development has transitioned from an environmental buzzword to a strict economic necessity. Ignoring environmental limits in pursuit of rapid industrialization creates severe long-term costs. Ecological degradation eventually undermines long-term economic gains by depleting essential natural resources, increasing healthcare costs, and causing climate-related disasters. To counter this, modern economists propose replacing traditional growth metrics with 'Green GDP', an index that factors in the environmental costs of production. Adjusting a nation's growth trajectory through fiscal tools like green subsidies and strict carbon taxes encourages eco-friendly industrial practices. If biodiversity protection is omitted from national macroeconomic planning, a country's growth trajectory remains highly unsustainable, setting the stage for future financial and ecological collapse.

Q131. Why is sustainable development considered an economic necessity according to the passage?

1. Ecological degradation eventually undermines long-term economic gains
2. It helps companies evade corporate taxes
3. It is mandated by international human rights laws
4. It reduces the need for modern technology

Q132. What metric is proposed by economists to replace traditional growth metrics to reflect true growth?

1. Gross National Happiness
2. Green GDP
3. Net Domestic Product
4. Human Development Index

Q133. What does the word 'trajectory' in the passage mean?

1. Path or progress of development over time
2. A sudden drop in economic value
3. A type of industrial machinery
4. A traditional farming method

Q134. What fiscal tools are suggested in the passage to encourage eco-friendly industrial practices?

1. Increasing import tariffs on raw materials
2. Providing universal basic income
3. Green subsidies and carbon taxes
4. Lowering the overall corporate tax rate

Q135. What is the consequence of omitting biodiversity protection from national planning?

1. The country experiences an immediate economic boom
2. The country's growth trajectory remains highly unsustainable
3. The country's currency value increases dramatically
4. The industrial sector shifts entirely to agriculture

Directions: Rearrange the following jumbled sentences to form a meaningful paragraph (Q136-Q140).

Q136. Rearrange the sentences into a logical paragraph:
(A) This led to the formation of the first coalition government.
(B) The general elections of 1977 saw a historic defeat for the ruling party.
(C) It marked the first time a non-congress party came to power at the center.
(D) Consequently, several regional parties gained prominence.

1. B-A-C-D
2. B-C-A-D
3. A-B-C-D
4. C-B-D-A

Q137. Rearrange the sentences into a logical paragraph:
(A) Srimanta Sankardeva created the Bhaona to spread his religious message.
(B) It is a traditional form of mythological theatre.
(C) He used the Brajavali language to write the dialogues.
(D) Even today, it remains a vital part of Assam's rural culture.

1. A-B-C-D
2. B-A-C-D
3. A-C-B-D
4. C-A-B-D

Q138. Rearrange the sentences into a logical paragraph:
(A) The monetary policy committee meets regularly to assess inflation.
(B) It uses tools like the repo rate to control the money supply.
(C) An increase in the repo rate typically reduces consumer demand.
(D) This helps to stabilize market prices over time.

1. B-A-C-D
2. A-C-B-D
3. A-B-C-D
4. C-D-A-B

Q139. Rearrange the sentences into a logical paragraph:
(A) The G20 is a premier forum for international economic cooperation.
(B) It represents around 85% of the global GDP.
(C) Every year, member nations meet at a summit to discuss global issues.
(D) South Africa is set to host this prestigious summit in 2025.

1. A-C-B-D
2. A-B-C-D
3. B-A-C-D
4. C-A-B-D

Q140. Rearrange the sentences into a logical paragraph:
(A) The Western Disturbances originate over the Mediterranean Sea.
(B) They travel eastwards across West Asia to reach India.
(C) On reaching the Himalayas, they cause winter rainfall in the plains.
(D) This rainfall is highly beneficial for the winter Rabi crops.

1. B-A-C-D
2. A-C-B-D
3. C-D-A-B
4. A-B-C-D

Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate options provided in questions (Q141-Q150).

"India's foreign exchange (141)_____ have reached an all-time high, ensuring macroeconomic (142)_____. However, the market should not be (143)_____ burdened with red tape. The central bank must (144)_____ domestic businesses by encouraging (145)_____ inflows of capital. As technology advances (146)_____, the (147)_____ trade dynamics are shifting. More emphasis on foreign direct (148)_____ is required to sustain this economic (149)_____. Policymakers must strike a balance between strict (150)_____ and free-market flexibility."

Q141. Fill in blank (141) with the most appropriate word.

1. debts
2. reserves
3. deficits
4. loans

Q142. Fill in blank (142) with the most appropriate word.

1. volatility
2. crisis
3. stability
4. collapse

Q143. Fill in blank (143) with the most appropriate word.

1. barely
2. excessively
3. rarely
4. lightly

Q144. Fill in blank (144) with the most appropriate word.

1. restrict
2. penalize
3. ignore
4. support

Q145. Fill in blank (145) with the most appropriate word.

1. massive
2. minor
3. negligible
4. restricted

Q146. Fill in blank (146) with the most appropriate word.

1. rapidly
2. slowly
3. backward
4. stagnantly

Q147. Fill in blank (147) with the most appropriate word.

1. local
2. international
3. domestic
4. provincial

Q148. Fill in blank (148) with the most appropriate word.

1. investment
2. taxation
3. penalty
4. withdrawal

Q149. Fill in blank (149) with the most appropriate word.

1. recession
2. decline
3. growth
4. inflation

Q150. Fill in blank (150) with the most appropriate word.

1. deregulation
2. freedom
3. regulation
4. anarchy

Explanation: Article 253 of the Constitution grants exclusive power to the Parliament to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement, or convention with any other country or countries, even if the subject matter falls in the State List.

Explanation: The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 bifurcated the erstwhile combined National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. It created a separate National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) under Article 338 and a National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) under a new Article 338A.

Explanation: The Doctrine of Pith and Substance is used to resolve conflicts between the Centre and States regarding legislative competence. If the true nature (pith and substance) of a law falls within a legislature's designated list, the law is valid, even if it incidentally encroaches upon a subject in another list.

Explanation: Under Part IVA of the Constitution, Article 51A(f) specifically states that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India "to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture."

Explanation: Article 50 of the Directive Principles of State Policy directs the state to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State, ensuring judicial independence.

Explanation: Article 365 states that if a State government fails to comply with or give effect to any directions given by the Union government under the Constitution, it is lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution, leading to President's Rule (Article 356).

Explanation: The 'Lame-Duck Session' refers to the final session of the outgoing Lok Sabha, held after the new Lok Sabha has already been elected. The members of the outgoing Lok Sabha who could not get re-elected are referred to as "lame ducks".

Explanation: The S.R. Bommai case (1994) is a historic Supreme Court ruling that stopped the arbitrary dismissal of State governments by the Centre under Article 356. The court ruled that a floor test in the legislative assembly is the ultimate test of the majority.

Explanation: Article 148 of the Indian Constitution provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, who acts as the guardian of the public purse.

Explanation: According to Article 324(5) of the Constitution, subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament, the conditions of service and tenure of office of the Election Commissioners and the Regional Commissioners shall be such as the President may by rule determine.

Explanation: Narayan Malhar Joshi (N.M. Joshi), a leading member of the Servants of India Society, founded the Social Service League in Bombay in 1911. The league aimed to collect and study social facts and discuss social problems with a view to forming public opinion on questions of social service.

Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar established the All India Depressed Classes Congress (often referred to interchangeably with Federation/Association in historical records) in 1930 at Nagpur to fight for the political and social rights of the untouchable communities at a national level. Note: The All India Depressed Classes Association of 1926 was founded by M.C. Rajah.

Explanation: Lord Cornwallis is widely known as the 'Father of Civil Services in India'. He was the first to bring into existence and organize civil services on strict modern, bureaucratic lines to separate commercial and administrative activities of the East India Company.

Explanation: Anundoram Borooah was a brilliant scholar and civil servant. In 1869, he became the very first Assamese to graduate with a Bachelor of Arts (B.A.) degree from Presidency College, Calcutta. He later became the first Assamese ICS officer. Note: Jagannath Barooah was the second Assamese graduate (1872).

Explanation: 'Assam Bilasini' was a prominent early Assamese periodical first published in 1871 from the Dharma Prakash Press established at the Auniati Satra in Majuli. It was founded and edited by Satradhikar Duttadeb Goswami.

Explanation: Following the assassination of the Kachari King Govinda Chandra in 1830, who died without a natural heir, the British administration invoked the principle of lapse. They formally annexed the fertile plains of Cachar into the British territory in 1832.

Explanation: Pandit Hridayanath Kunzru, an active member of the Servants of India Society, founded the Seva Samiti at Allahabad in 1914. The Samiti organized social service during natural disasters, religious fairs, and promoted education and sanitation.

Explanation: The legendary freedom fighters Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev, and Rajguru were executed by hanging on March 23, 1931, in the Lahore jail. During this period (1926-1931), Lord Irwin was serving as the Viceroy of India.

Explanation: While the Charter Act of 1813 ended the EIC's monopoly in India, it allowed them to retain the monopoly over trade in tea and trade with China. The Charter Act of 1833 decisively ended these remaining privileges, making the EIC a purely administrative body.

Explanation: Deshpran Lakshmidhar Sarma was a staunch freedom fighter, a youth leader, and a prominent literary figure of Assam known for his work 'Byarthatar Daan'. He was instrumental in organizing laborers and peasants and was deeply associated with revolutionary journals like 'Asamiya'.

Explanation: Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is defined strictly as the total market value of all final goods and services produced within the domestic boundaries of a country in a given year. If you subtract the Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) from the Gross National Product (GNP), you arrive at the GDP.

Explanation: Personal Disposable Income (PDI) represents the actual amount of money individuals have available to spend or save. It is calculated by taking total Personal Income (PI) and subtracting personal direct taxes (like income tax) and other mandatory non-tax payments (like fines and fees to the government).

Explanation: Developed by A.W. Phillips, the Phillips Curve illustrates a historical inverse relationship between rates of unemployment and corresponding rates of inflation. In the short term, as inflation increases, unemployment tends to decrease, and vice versa.

Explanation: Income Elasticity of Demand measures how the quantity demanded of a specific good reacts to a change in the consumer's income. It is crucial for determining whether a good is a necessity, a luxury, or an inferior good.

Explanation: The Market Stabilization Scheme (MSS) is a monetary policy intervention introduced by the RBI in 2004. It manages excess liquidity in the system arising from massive foreign capital inflows by issuing short-term government securities specifically for sterilization, keeping the money in a separate MSS cash account.

Explanation: Presented alongside the Union Budget, the Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement is mandated by the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003. It sets a three-year rolling target for specific fiscal indicators relative to the GDP.

Explanation: The Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-1974) of India was implemented under the leadership of Indira Gandhi. It had two main objectives: growth with stability and progressive achievement of self-reliance (aiming for zero net foreign aid).

Explanation: When the Janata Party government came to power in 1977, they terminated the Fifth Five-Year Plan a year early (in 1978) and introduced a new model called the 'Rolling Plan' (1978-80). It focused on generating employment in agriculture and small-scale industries.

Explanation: Value Added Tax (VAT) is an indirect tax assessed incrementally. It is levied on the price of a product or service at each stage of production, distribution, or sale to the end consumer, ensuring tax is only paid on the "value added" at that specific stage, eliminating the cascading effect of taxes.

Explanation: Under the Monetary Policy Framework Agreement signed between the Government of India and the RBI, the central bank is mandated to maintain a consumer price index (CPI) inflation target of exactly 4%, with an upper tolerance limit of 6% and a lower tolerance limit of 2%.

Explanation: Nalini Bala Devi was a noted Indian writer and poet of Assamese literature, famed for her mystic poetry. She was the first Assamese woman to be awarded the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1968 for her acclaimed poetry anthology, 'Alakananda'.

Explanation: 'Mor Jivan Sonaran' (Reminiscences of My Life) is the brilliant autobiography of Sahityarathi Lakshminath Bezbaroa. It is an invaluable literary piece that vividly chronicles the socio-cultural landscape of 19th-century Assam.

Explanation: The Mising Autonomous Council (MAC) was constituted in 1995 following an accord between the Assam Government and the Mising leadership. It aims to ensure maximum autonomy for the socio-economic and cultural development of the Mising people residing in the riverine areas.

Explanation: Nameri National Park is located in the foothills of the Eastern Himalayas in the Sonitpur District of Assam. It shares its northern boundary with the Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary of Arunachal Pradesh and is bounded by the Jia Bhoreli River on the west.

Explanation: The Dhol is the quintessential percussion instrument of Assam, fiercely played during the Rongali Bihu festival. It consists of a hollow wooden barrel (usually carved from jackfruit or mango wood) with both ends covered in animal skin, beaten rhythmically with a stick and hand. Note: The 'Khol', widely used in Sattriya performances, has a clay body.

Explanation: Raghunath Choudhary is revered as the 'Bihugi Kobi' (Poet of the Birds) in Assamese literature because most of his romantic and nature poetry vividly revolves around birds and the serene beauty of the Assamese landscape (e.g., Keteki, Dahikatara).

Explanation: Dr. Mamoni Raisom Goswami, also known as Indira Goswami, was an extraordinary Assamese novelist and scholar. She became the second Assamese literary figure to win the Jnanpith Award in 2000. (The first was Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya in 1979, and the third was Nilmani Phookan Jr. in 2021).

Explanation: Geographically, Karbi Anglong is the largest district in Assam, comprising massive tracts of hilly terrain and dense forests. The administrative headquarters is located at Diphu.

Explanation: The 'Baanhi' is the traditional Assamese bamboo flute, widely played to create enchanting melodies during Bihu dances and pastoral folk songs. Note: The 'Pepa' is another crucial Bihu instrument, but it is a hornpipe made strictly from a buffalo horn, not bamboo.

Explanation: Chandraprabha Saikiani was a fierce feminist, social reformer, and freedom fighter from Assam. She founded the Asam Pradeshik Mahila Samiti in 1926 at Tezpur to mobilize women for the freedom struggle and combat oppressive social customs like untouchability and child marriage.

Explanation: Sahityarathi Lakshminath Bezbaroa adopted the pen-name 'Kripabor Borua' to write brilliant satirical essays and humorous columns that critiqued the hypocrisies of contemporary Assamese society. These were compiled in works like 'Kripabor Boruar Kakotor Topola'.

Explanation: Formed under the provisions of the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, the North Cachar Hills Autonomous Council (NCHAC) was established in 1952 to safeguard the tribal rights and administer the Dima Hasao district (formerly known as North Cachar Hills).

Explanation: Chakrashila Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Kokrajhar and Dhubri districts of Assam. It is globally recognized as the second protected habitat for the highly endangered Golden Langur in India.

Explanation: The Deori community celebrates 'Deori Bihu' (also known as Ibaku Bisu or Bohag Bisu), a major agricultural festival marking the new year. It is celebrated in the month of Bohag with traditional fervor, pig sacrifices, and unique Deori Bihu dances.

Explanation: Devakanta Barua was a prominent Indian politician from Assam who served as the President of the Indian National Congress during the Emergency period (1975–1977). He is notoriously remembered for his sycophantic slogan, "India is Indira. Indira is India."

Explanation: The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations established in 1944. It coordinates the principles and techniques of international air navigation to foster safe global flight operations. Its headquarters is located in Montreal, Quebec, Canada.

Explanation: The Cook Strait is the stretch of water that separates the North Island and South Island of New Zealand, connecting the Tasman Sea on the west with the South Pacific Ocean on the east.

Explanation: The United Nations was officially established on October 24, 1945, after the conclusion of World War II, at the United Nations Conference on International Organization in San Francisco, with 51 original member states signing the UN Charter.

Explanation: The Bald Eagle is an apex predator native to North America. It was chosen in 1782 by the founding fathers as the national bird and symbol of the United States because of its majestic beauty, great strength, and long life.

Explanation: Switzerland is a highly prosperous European nation. Its de facto capital is Bern (though it has no official capital city by law). The currency used is the Swiss Franc (CHF), known globally for its stability.

Explanation: In the International Telecommunication Union's (ITU) Global Cybersecurity Index (GCI) 2024, India achieved 'Tier 1' status, reflecting its role-modeling capabilities and robust nationwide cybersecurity frameworks across legal, technical, and organizational pillars.

Explanation: The Prerna Scheme (Prerana: An Experiential Learning Program) was launched by the Ministry of Education to offer a meaningful, unique, and inspiring experiential learning program aimed at empowering students with leadership qualities and deep integration with Indian heritage.

Explanation: The 2024 Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) was hosted by the Pacific island nation of Samoa in October 2024, focusing on climate resilience and sustainable oceans. It was the first CHOGM held in a Pacific Small Island Developing State.

Explanation: Saudi Arabia is the host nation for the 16th session of the Conference of the Parties (COP16) to the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) held in Riyadh in December 2024, marking a crucial meeting for global land restoration and drought resilience.

Explanation: Brazil assumed the G20 Presidency for 2024. The main Heads of State and Government Summit was scheduled to be held in the vibrant city of Rio de Janeiro in November 2024, pushing agendas on poverty eradication and global governance reform.

Explanation: At the Paris 2024 Olympics, 22-year-old Manu Bhaker made history by becoming the first Indian athlete to win two medals in a single edition of the Olympic Games since independence. She won bronze in the women's 10m air pistol and the mixed team 10m air pistol event.

Explanation: The 2024 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine was jointly awarded to American scientists Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun for their groundbreaking discovery of microRNA and its fundamental role in post-transcriptional gene regulation.

Explanation: Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus from Ethiopia was re-elected unopposed to serve a second five-year term as the Director-General of the World Health Organization (WHO), starting in August 2022. He successfully guided the global health body through the devastating COVID-19 pandemic.

Explanation: Announced in August 2019, the Jal Jeevan Mission is a massive central government initiative envisioned to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections to all rural households in India by the year 2024.

Explanation: 'Hathibondha', a touching Assamese documentary highlighting human-elephant conflict and coexistence, directed by Kulanandini Mahanta, won the Best Non-Feature Film award at the prestigious 69th National Film Awards.

Explanation: The candela (cd) is the base unit of luminous intensity in the International System of Units (SI). It measures the luminous power per unit solid angle emitted by a point light source in a particular direction.

Explanation: Citric acid is a weak organic acid that occurs naturally in citrus fruits (like lemons, limes, oranges, and grapefruits). It is responsible for their characteristic tart, sour taste and is widely used as a natural preservative.

Explanation: Blood group O Negative is universally referred to as the 'Universal Donor' type. Because its red blood cells lack A, B, and Rh antigens, it can be transfused into any patient in a medical emergency without causing a dangerous immune reaction.

Explanation: The Hertz (Hz) is the derived SI unit of frequency, defined as one cycle per second. It determines the 'pitch' of a sound; a higher frequency results in a higher pitch, and a lower frequency results in a lower pitch.

Explanation: When copper is exposed to moist air containing carbon dioxide and oxygen for a long time, it slowly corrodes and forms a dull green coating called patina. Chemically, this green layer is primarily composed of Basic Copper Carbonate (CuCO₃·Cu(OH)₂).

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Explanation: In English grammar, the conjunction 'lest' is strictly followed by the modal auxiliary verb 'should'. It translates to "for fear that" and carries a negative meaning, so 'not' is also avoided. Therefore, 'lest he may fail' is grammatically incorrect and must be improved to 'lest he should fail'.

Explanation: The rule of prepositions dictates that if a person dies of a specific disease (like cancer, malaria), we use 'of' (e.g., died of cancer). However, if death is caused by an external or secondary factor like overeating, overworking, or poisoning, we use the preposition 'from' (e.g., died from overeating).

Explanation: The word 'Ebullient' is an adjective used to describe someone who is overflowing with enthusiasm, highly cheerful, bubbly, and full of positive energy.

Explanation: The phrase 'as if' or 'as though' indicates a hypothetical or unreal situation in the present. Therefore, it strictly takes the past subjunctive form of the verb. The present tense verb 'knows' must be changed to the past tense 'knew'.

Explanation: The verb 'shrink' is an irregular verb. Its base form is 'shrink' (V1), its past simple form is 'shrank' (V2), and its past participle form is 'shrunk' (V3). Note: 'Shrunken' is typically used purely as an adjective (e.g., a shrunken head).

Explanation: This sentence features two distinct actions occurring in the past. According to grammar rules, the action that happened *first* (the patient dying) must be in the Past Perfect tense (had + V3), and the action that happened *later* (doctor arriving) stays in Simple Past. Therefore, "died" should be improved to "had died".

Explanation: Traditional grammar dictates that 'None' (meaning not one) should be treated as a singular subject, therefore taking a singular verb ('seems'). While modern informal English occasionally accepts plural verbs with 'none of', strict formal exam grammar prefers the singular verb.

Explanation: 'Melancholy' is a noun/adjective describing a feeling of deep, persistent sadness, sorrow, or gloom. Its direct opposite (antonym) is 'Cheerful', which means visibly happy and optimistic.

Explanation: The verb 'prefer' always takes the preposition 'to' when comparing two nouns or gerunds (e.g., "prefer coffee to tea"). It never takes the comparative word 'than'.

Explanation: A preposition is a word governing a noun or pronoun and expressing a relation to another word. Here, 'under' establishes the spatial relationship between the 'book' and the 'desk', making it a preposition of place.

Explanation: The second sentence of the passage clearly states: "However, the initial expansion of these tea gardens was severely constrained by a critical shortage of local labor."

Explanation: The passage explicitly answers this by stating that the indigenous Assamese peasants were reluctant to work because "they possessed self-sufficient landholdings under their traditional agricultural system, which met their basic needs."

Explanation: In the context of the passage, the imported laborers were subjected to "oppressive, harsh, and highly demanding working conditions." 'Oppressive' means inflicting harsh and authoritarian treatment.

Explanation: The passage explicitly notes that to resolve the crisis, "the British colonial government initiated a massive and highly organized system of forced indentured immigration" of laborers from central and eastern India.

Explanation: The concluding sentence of the passage highlights the long-term historical impact: "This massive influx not only stabilized the tea industry but also fundamentally transformed the socio-demographic fabric of the province forever."

Explanation: The passage argues that sustainable development is an economic necessity because "Ecological degradation eventually undermines long-term economic gains by depleting essential natural resources, increasing healthcare costs, and causing climate-related disasters."

Explanation: According to the text, modern economists propose replacing traditional metrics with 'Green GDP', an index specifically designed to factor in the environmental costs of production.

Explanation: In economic and policy contexts, the word 'trajectory' refers to the path, course, or progression that a country's development or growth takes over a period of time.

Explanation: The passage explicitly states: "Adjusting a nation's growth trajectory through fiscal tools like green subsidies and strict carbon taxes encourages eco-friendly industrial practices."

Explanation: The final sentence concludes that if biodiversity protection is omitted from macroeconomic planning, "a country's growth trajectory remains highly unsustainable, setting the stage for future financial and ecological collapse."

Explanation: The logical flow of events is chronological. First, the historic defeat happened (B). This defeat led to the formation of a coalition (A). This coalition marked the first non-congress power at the center (C). Consequently, regional parties gained prominence (D).

Explanation: Sentence A introduces the primary subject (Srimanta Sankardeva and Bhaona). Sentence B defines what Bhaona is (mythological theatre). Sentence C details how it was written (Brajavali language). Sentence D concludes with its current relevance today.

Explanation: Sentence A introduces the primary subject (Monetary policy committee). Sentence B explains 'how' it assesses inflation (using tools like repo rate). Sentence C provides a specific example of the tool's effect (increase reduces demand). Sentence D concludes the final outcome (stabilizes prices).

Explanation: Sentence A introduces the G20. Sentence B gives a supporting fact about the G20 (represents 85% of GDP). Sentence C explains how the forum operates (nations meet at a summit). Sentence D gives a current/future example of this summit (South Africa in 2025).

Explanation: The paragraph follows a geographical and chronological journey. A states the origin (Mediterranean). B states the travel path (eastwards to India). C states the collision point and immediate effect (Himalayas/rainfall). D states the ultimate agricultural benefit of this rainfall.

Explanation: In economic terminology, a country holds foreign currency in the form of "foreign exchange reserves". The other options (debts, deficits, loans) do not fit the context of reaching an all-time high that ensures economic strength.

Explanation: High foreign exchange reserves are a positive indicator that ensures economic security. Therefore, it ensures macroeconomic "stability", avoiding crises or volatility.

Explanation: "Red tape" refers to burdensome bureaucracy. The sentence suggests the market should not be overly burdened by it. "Excessively" is the perfect adverb to modify "burdened" in this negative context.

Explanation: The passage discusses encouraging capital inflows. To encourage businesses and inflows, the central bank must "support" them, rather than restrict, penalize, or ignore them.

Explanation: To achieve strong economic growth and robust foreign reserves, the country needs significant foreign capital. "Massive" inflows accurately convey this requirement, while minor or negligible would have the opposite effect.

Explanation: Technological advancement is a fast-paced phenomenon. The adverb "rapidly" correctly describes the high speed at which modern technology changes trade dynamics.

Explanation: The entire passage discusses foreign exchange, capital inflows, and global markets. Therefore, the shifting dynamics refer to "international" trade, not just local or domestic trade.

Explanation: The standard economic term for foreign capital flowing directly into domestic businesses is Foreign Direct Investment (FDI). Hence, "investment" is the correct term to fill the blank.

Explanation: The passage discusses bringing in foreign direct investment to sustain positive momentum. This momentum is best described as economic "growth", rather than negative terms like recession or decline.

Explanation: The final sentence calls for a "balance". A balance is struck between two opposing forces. Since one force is "free-market flexibility" (deregulation), the opposing force must be strict "regulation" (government oversight).