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ADRE Grade-III Paper III Free Demo ebook (English)

Free Practice Demo

ADRE Grade-IV Paper-I (HSLC Level) - Free Practice Set (2026-2027 Edition)

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Practice Set Free Demo

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Q1. Which is the northernmost site of the Indus Valley Civilization, located on the bank of the Chenab River in Jammu and Kashmir?
  1. Daimabad
  2. Manda
  3. Alamgirpur
  4. Suktagendor
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Q2. Which sacred Vedic text, also known as the 'Vedanta', represents the philosophical climax of the Vedic period?
  1. Brahmanas
  2. Aranyakas
  3. Vedangas
  4. Upanishads
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Q3. Which Mauryan administrative officer was designated as the superintendent of agricultural crown lands?
  1. Sitadhyaksha
  2. Samaharta
  3. Sannidhata
  4. Akshapatala
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Q4. Which famous iron pillar, located in Delhi, displays an inscription detailing the conquests of a king named Chandra, historically identified as Chandrapupta II?
  1. Allahabad Pillar
  2. Eran Pillar
  3. Mehrauli Iron Pillar
  4. Sanchi Pillar
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Q5. Which Sultan of the Delhi Sultanate founded the city of Jaunpur in memory of his cousin Jauna Khan?
  1. Muhammad bin Tughlaq
  2. Firoz Shah Tughlaq
  3. Alauddin Khalji
  4. Sikandar Lodi
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Q6. Which Mughal Emperor constructed the famous Pearl Mosque (Moti Masjid) inside the Red Fort complex in Delhi?
  1. Shah Jahan
  2. Akbar
  3. Aurangzeb
  4. Jahangir
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Q7. Which British Governor-General of India was responsible for the introduction of local self-government in 1882, earning him the title 'Father of Local Self-Government'?
  1. Lord Curzon
  2. Lord Lytton
  3. Lord Mayo
  4. Lord Ripon
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Q8. Which Indian nationalist leader founded the 'Home Rule League' in Pune in April 1916?
  1. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  2. Annie Besant
  3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
  4. Lala Lajpat Rai
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Q9. Which administrative officer was the chief physician of the royal family and superintendent of health services in the Ahom kingdom?
  1. Phukan
  2. Bezbaruah
  3. Rajkhowa
  4. Barbaruah
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Q10. What is the term used for the collection of several 'Gots' of Paiks forming a company under a Hazarika?
  1. Mel
  2. Got
  3. Khel
  4. Chamuas
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Q11. What was the royal tax collected from persons who caught wild elephants in the forests of Assam under Ahom rule?
  1. Hatimur
  2. Gaj-kar
  3. Jal-kar
  4. Posa
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Q12. Which Ahom prince was set up by the British as a tributary ruler of Upper Assam in 1833 before his final deposition in 1838?
  1. Chandrakanta Singha
  2. Jogeswar Singha
  3. Purandar Singha
  4. Kamaleswar Singha
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Q13. Who is known as the first martyr of the 1857 Sepoy Mutiny in Assam, who was hanged alongside Maniram Dewan?
  1. Piyoli Baruah
  2. Kushal Konwar
  3. Kanaklata Barua
  4. Jiuram Dulia Baruah
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Q14. Who was the first president of the landmark 'Assam Chhatra Sanmilan' held in Guwahati in 1916?
  1. Padmanath Gohain Baruah
  2. Tarun Ram Phukan
  3. Nabin Chandra Bordoloi
  4. Lakshminath Bezbaroa
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Q15. Who was the first Assamese woman to be elected to the Rajya Sabha in independent India?
  1. Amalprabha Das
  2. Pushpalata Das
  3. Chandraprabha Saikiani
  4. Kanaklata Barua
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Q16. Which is the highest peak of the Nilgiri Hills in South India?
  1. Anamudi
  2. Mahendragiri
  3. Doddabetta
  4. Kalsubai
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Q17. What is the name of the geologically significant hot water spring located in the Karbi Anglong district of Assam?
  1. Vashisht
  2. Garampani
  3. Manikaran
  4. Panimur
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Q18. What is the local term for the pre-monsoon thunderstorms accompanied by heavy rains and hail in West Bengal?
  1. Mango Showers
  2. Loo
  3. Cherry Blossom
  4. Kalbaishakhi
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Q19. Which type of forest is characterized by high rainfall, evergreen leaves, and three to four vertical layers of vegetation, found heavily in the Western Ghats and Northeast India?
  1. Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests
  2. Tropical Deciduous Forests
  3. Montane Forests
  4. Mangrove Forests
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Q20. Which major river of South India originates in the Brahmagiri Hills of the Western Ghats and is known for its extensive delta in Tamil Nadu?
  1. Godavari River
  2. Krishna River
  3. Kaveri River
  4. Mahanadi River
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Q21. What is the geological term for the older, less fertile alluvial soil deposited away from the river floodplains?
  1. Khadar
  2. Bhabar
  3. Bhangar
  4. Terai
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Q22. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the President of India to declare a State Emergency (President's Rule) in a state?
  1. Article 352
  2. Article 356
  3. Article 360
  4. Article 365
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Q23. Who is the ex-officio Chairperson of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) of India?
  1. Home Minister of India
  2. President of India
  3. Minister of Earth Sciences
  4. Prime Minister of India
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Q24. Under which constitutional provision can the President of India call a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament to resolve a deadlock over an ordinary bill?
  1. Article 110
  2. Article 112
  3. Article 108
  4. Article 123
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Q25. Who administers the oath of office to the Chief Justice of India?
  1. President of India
  2. Vice-President of India
  3. Prime Minister
  4. Senior-most judge of the Supreme Court
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Q26. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the names of the States and Union Territories of India and their territorial jurisdictions?
  1. Second Schedule
  2. Third Schedule
  3. First Schedule
  4. Fourth Schedule
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Q27. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the salaries, emoluments, and allowances of constitutional dignitaries like the President, Governors, and Judges?
  1. Third Schedule
  2. Second Schedule
  3. Fourth Schedule
  4. Sixth Schedule
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Q28. Which Ahom officer was specifically responsible for managing and administering the royal horses and cavalry?
  1. Hati Baruah
  2. Senapati
  3. Phukan
  4. Ghora Baruah
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Q29. What is the geological term for the newer, highly fertile alluvial soil deposited annually on the river floodplains?
  1. Bhangar
  2. Khadar
  3. Bhabar
  4. Terai
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Q30. Which major river of Northeast India forms the northern boundary of the Barail Range?
  1. Barak River
  2. Dhansiri River
  3. Brahmaputra River
  4. Kopili River
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Q31. Which celebrated novel by Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya depicts the socio-political lives of the Tangkhul Naga community?
  1. Mrityunjay
  2. Aghari Atmar Kahini
  3. Antareep
  4. Iyaruingam
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Q32. Which Jnanpith winner of Assam was affectionately honored with the title 'Kavya Rishi'?
  1. Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya
  2. Mamoni Raisom Goswami
  3. Nilmani Phookan Jr.
  4. Bhabendra Nath Saikia
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Q33. Who wrote the first modern Assamese play, 'Ram-Navami', published in 1857?
  1. Hemchandra Barua
  2. Gunabhiram Barua
  3. Lakshminath Bezbaroa
  4. Padmanath Gohain Baruah
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Q34. Who is known as the 'Geetibhaskar' in the musical and literary history of Assam?
  1. Bishnu Prasad Rabha
  2. Jyoti Prasad Agarwala
  3. Bhupen Hazarika
  4. Pratima Barua Pandey
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Q35. What is the traditional name of the female-style dance in the Sattriya repertoire, characterized by graceful movements?
  1. Jhumura Dance
  2. Nadubhangi Dance
  3. Sutradhari Dance
  4. Chali Dance
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Q36. What is the traditional Assamese hand-held cymbal used to maintain the rhythm (Tala) in Sattriya performances?
  1. Khol
  2. Manjira
  3. Doba
  4. Pepa
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Q37. Which indigenous tribal community of Assam is famous for the traditional performance of the 'Jhumur' dance?
  1. Bodo
  2. Mising
  3. Tea Tribes of Assam
  4. Karbi
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Q38. Which tribe of Assam traditionally builds their houses called 'Nokmong' on the ground with bamboo and thatch?
  1. Tiwa Tribe
  2. Rabha Tribe
  3. Dimasa Tribe
  4. Garo Tribe
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Q39. Which historic temple of Hajo, Assam, is globally famous for being a sacred pilgrimage center for both Hindus and Buddhists?
  1. Kamakhya Temple
  2. Hayagriva Madhava Temple
  3. Umananda Temple
  4. Navagraha Temple
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Q40. What is the name of the traditional hand-loom textile design of the Mising community, featuring colorful diamond patterns?
  1. Rignai
  2. Dokhona
  3. Gero
  4. Mekhela
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Q41. Where is the headquarters of the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) located?
  1. Geneva, Switzerland
  2. Gland, Switzerland
  3. Paris, France
  4. New York, USA
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Q42. Which is the highest mountain peak in the continent of Africa?
  1. Mount Kenya
  2. Mount Elgon
  3. Mount Atlas
  4. Mount Kilimanjaro
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Q43. In which year did the historic Boston Tea Party, a major event leading up to the American Revolutionary War, take place?
  1. 1773
  2. 1775
  3. 1783
  4. 1789
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Q44. Which animal is recognized as the national symbol of France?
  1. Bald Eagle
  2. Gallic Rooster
  3. Golden Lion
  4. Brown Bear
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Q45. What is the capital and the official currency of Kenya?
  1. Mombasa & Rand
  2. Nairobi & Pula
  3. Nairobi & Kenyan Shilling
  4. Kampala & Shilling
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Q46. What was India's rank in the International IP Index 2024?
  1. 40th
  2. 45th
  3. 42nd
  4. 48th
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Q47. Who won the Purple Cap for taking the most wickets in the Indian Premier League (IPL) 2024?
  1. Jasprit Bumrah
  2. Yuzvendra Chahal
  3. Kagiso Rabada
  4. Harshal Patel
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Q48. Which Indian state hosted the 37th National Games of India in late 2023?
  1. Gujarat
  2. Maharashtra
  3. Goa
  4. Kerala
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Q49. Who was honored with the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 2024 for computational protein design and protein structure prediction?
  1. Karikó & Weissman
  2. David Baker, Demis Hassabis, and John Jumper
  3. Aspect, Clauser & Zeilinger
  4. Moungi, Louis & Alexei
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Q50. Which Assamese writer was awarded the Sahitya Akademi Bal Sahitya Puraskar in 2024?
  1. Anuradha Sharma Pujari
  2. Arupa Patangia Kalita
  3. Jayanta Madhab Bora
  4. Ranju Hazarika
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Q51. Which scheme was launched by the Central Government of India in 2024 to provide free digital health cards to all citizens under Ayushman Bharat?
  1. PM-JAY
  2. CoWIN
  3. Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission
  4. e-Sanjeevani
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Q52. What is the name of the central scheme launched in 2024 to provide internship opportunities to one crore youth in top 500 companies?
  1. PM Kaushal Vikas Yojana
  2. PM Internship Scheme
  3. PM Rojgar Protsahan Yojana
  4. Skill India Mission
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Q53. Which city hosted the 2024 SCO (Shanghai Cooperation Organisation) Summit in July 2024?
  1. Samarkand, Uzbekistan
  2. Astana, Kazakhstan
  3. Beijing, China
  4. New Delhi, India
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Q54. Who is the current Chairperson of the National Commission for Women (NCW) as of 2025/2026?
  1. Rekha Sharma
  2. Mamta Sharma
  3. Lalitha Kumaramangalam
  4. Vijaya Rahatkar
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Q55. Who was appointed as the Director General of the Border Security Force (BSF) in 2024?
  1. Nitin Agrawal
  2. Daljit Singh Chawdhary
  3. Sujoy Lal Thaosen
  4. Pankaj Kumar Singh
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Q56. Which law of physics states that the total mechanical energy of an isolated system remains constant?
  1. First Law of Thermodynamics
  2. Newton's Third Law
  3. Law of Conservation of Energy
  4. Hooke's Law
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Q57. What is the SI unit of electric charge?
  1. Ampere
  2. Volt
  3. Coulomb
  4. Ohm
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Q58. What is the common name of Calcium Carbonate, heavily used in architecture and as an antacid?
  1. Quicklime
  2. Slaked Lime
  3. Gypsum
  4. Limestone
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Q59. Which element has the highest thermal and electrical conductivity among all metals?
  1. Copper
  2. Silver
  3. Gold
  4. Aluminum
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Q60. Which pigment in human red blood cells is responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body?
  1. Myoglobin
  2. Chlorophyll
  3. Hemoglobin
  4. Melanin
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Directions: In each of the following questions (Q61-Q62), two statements are given followed by a conclusion. Read the statements carefully and determine if the conclusion logically follows.

Q61. Statements: All men are humans. All humans are mortal.
Conclusion: Are all men mortal?
  1. Yes (The conclusion logically follows)
  2. No (The conclusion does not follow)
  3. Either Yes or No
  4. Data Inadequate
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Q62. Statements: Some books are papers. No paper is a pencil.
Conclusion: Are some books not pencils?
  1. No (The conclusion does not follow)
  2. Cannot be determined
  3. Yes (The conclusion logically follows)
  4. None of the above
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Q63. If 'DOG' is coded as 'EPH' in a certain system, how is the word 'CAT' coded in that same system?
  1. BZS
  2. DBU
  3. ECV
  4. DCU
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Q64. If 'BOY' is coded as '2-15-25' by using alphabet positions, what is the numerical code for 'TOY'?
  1. 21-15-25
  2. 20-16-25
  3. 20-15-25
  4. 19-15-24
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Q65. If the word 'CHAIR' is coded as 'RIHCA' by reversing its letters, how is 'TABLE' coded?
  1. EBALT
  2. ETABL
  3. ELBAT
  4. LATEB
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Q66. Pointing to a lady, a man said, "She is the daughter of my mother's only son." How is the lady related to the man?
  1. Niece
  2. Daughter
  3. Sister
  4. Granddaughter
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Q67. X is the brother of Y. Y is the wife of Z. Z is the father of W. How is X related to W?
  1. Paternal Uncle
  2. Brother
  3. Maternal Uncle
  4. Grandfather
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Q68. A man walks 12 km West, then turns North and walks 5 km. How far is he from his starting point?
  1. 17 km
  2. 7 km
  3. 15 km
  4. 13 km
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Q69. A person facing East turns 90 degrees counter-clockwise and then 180 degrees clockwise. Which direction is he facing now?
  1. North
  2. South
  3. West
  4. East
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Q70. Find the next number in the series: 3, 6, 12, 24, ?
  1. 36
  2. 42
  3. 48
  4. 60
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Q71. Find the next number in the series: 1, 4, 9, 16, ?
  1. 24
  2. 36
  3. 20
  4. 25
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Q72. Find the next number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, ?
  1. 28
  2. 30
  3. 32
  4. 26
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Q73. Find the next term in the alphabet series: AB, DE, GH, JK, ?
  1. LM
  2. MO
  3. MN
  4. NO
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Q74. Find the next term in the alphabet series: AZ, BY, CX, DW, ?
  1. FU
  2. EU
  3. EV
  4. FV
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Directions: Read the following information carefully to answer the question.

Q75. Six children A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting in a circle facing the center. A is to the immediate right of B. C is between A and E. D is opposite to A. Who is sitting to the immediate left of B?
  1. C
  2. D
  3. E
  4. F
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Q76. Five books are placed on a shelf. Hindi is next to English. History is between English and Science. Geography is at the top. Which book is in the middle of the shelf?

  1. Science
  2. History
  3. Hindi
  4. English
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Q77. If 12 identical pipes can fill a tank in 30 minutes, how many minutes will 6 such pipes take to fill the same tank?

  1. 60 minutes
  2. 15 minutes
  3. 45 minutes
  4. 75 minutes
StudyBix

Directions: In each of the following questions (Q78-Q80), a statement is given followed by a conclusion. Read them carefully and determine if the conclusion logically follows the statement.

Q78. Statement: Regular physical exercise improves mental focus.
Conclusion: People who do not exercise can never focus mentally.
Does this conclusion follow?

  1. Yes
  2. Data Inadequate
  3. No
  4. Either Yes or No
StudyBix

Q79. Statement: All graduates are eligible to apply for this post. Sunil is a graduate.
Conclusion: Sunil is eligible to apply for this post.
Does this conclusion follow?

  1. Either Yes or No
  2. Yes
  3. No
  4. Data Inadequate
StudyBix

Q80. Statement: If the electric supply is cut off, the fan stops working. The electric supply is cut off.
Conclusion: The fan has stopped working.
Does this conclusion follow?

  1. Either Yes or No
  2. Data Inadequate
  3. No
  4. Yes
StudyBix

Q81. Find the sum of the greatest 4-digit number and the smallest 3-digit number (formed without repetition of digits).

  1. 9899
  2. 9978
  3. 10077
  4. 9999
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Q82. If the sum of five consecutive odd integers is 125, find the largest of these integers.

  1. 31
  2. 27
  3. 25
  4. 29
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Q83. Find the units digit of the expression: 740 × 915.

  1. 7
  2. 9
  3. 3
  4. 1
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Q84. Find the Highest Common Factor (HCF) of 75, 125, and 175.

  1. 50
  2. 25
  3. 15
  4. 5
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Q85. Find the smallest positive number which when divided by 18, 24, and 30 leaves a remainder of 4 in each case.

  1. 356
  2. 364
  3. 360
  4. 372
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Q86. The LCM of two numbers is 180 and their product is 1080. Find their Highest Common Factor (HCF).

  1. 18
  2. 6
  3. 12
  4. 9
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Q87. If x:y = 5:8, find the value of the ratio (2x + y) : (3x - y).

  1. 15:8
  2. 18:7
  3. 17:9
  4. 16:7
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Q88. Divide Rs 4800 among A, B, and C in the ratio 3:4:5. What is B's share?

  1. Rs 1200
  2. Rs 2000
  3. Rs 1600
  4. Rs 1800
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Q89. Find the third proportional to the numbers 12 and 18.

  1. 24
  2. 36
  3. 30
  4. 27
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Q90. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 25%, by what percentage must its width be decreased to keep the area unchanged?

  1. 20%
  2. 15%
  3. 22.5%
  4. 25%
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Q91. In an election, a candidate got 55% of the total votes and won by a majority of 600 votes. Find the total number of votes polled.

  1. 5000
  2. 4500
  3. 6000
  4. 7500
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Q92. If 18% of A is equal to 24% of B, what is the ratio A:B?

  1. 3:4
  2. 4:3
  3. 5:3
  4. 3:5
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Q93. A shopkeeper sells an item at a profit of 20%. If he had bought it for 10% less and sold it for Rs 60 more, he would have gained 40%. Find the cost price of the item.

  1. Rs 1200
  2. Rs 1000
  3. Rs 1500
  4. Rs 800
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Q94. If the cost price of 30 books is equal to the selling price of 24 books, find the profit percentage.

  1. 20%
  2. 25%
  3. 30%
  4. 15%
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Q95. Find the single discount equivalent to a series of two successive discounts of 15% and 25%.

  1. 40%
  2. 36.25%
  3. 35.75%
  4. 38.5%
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Q96. At what rate of simple interest per annum will a sum of money triple itself in 20 years?

  1. 5%
  2. 15%
  3. 10%
  4. 12%
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Q97. A sum of money invested at simple interest amounts to Rs 8400 in 3 years and Rs 9600 in 5 years. Find the principal sum.

  1. Rs 7000
  2. Rs 6600
  3. Rs 6000
  4. Rs 7200
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Q98. Find the simple interest earned on Rs 36000 at 6% per annum for a duration of 4 months.

  1. Rs 640
  2. Rs 720
  3. Rs 864
  4. Rs 540
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Q99. Find the compound interest on Rs 15000 for 2 years at 10% per annum, compounded annually.

  1. Rs 3000
  2. Rs 3300
  3. Rs 3150
  4. Rs 3250
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Q100. If the difference between compound interest and simple interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 5% per annum is Rs 25, find the principal.

  1. Rs 10000
  2. Rs 12000
  3. Rs 8000
  4. Rs 5000
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Q101. At what rate percentage per annum will Rs 2000 amount to Rs 2205 in 2 years compounded annually?

  1. 4.5%
  2. 5%
  3. 6%
  4. 5.5%
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Q102. Find the average of all even numbers between 20 and 40 (inclusive).

  1. 31
  2. 28
  3. 32
  4. 30
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Q103. The average weight of 19 students in a class is 45 kg. If the weight of the teacher is included, the average weight increases by 1 kg. Find the weight of the teacher.

  1. 62 kg
  2. 65 kg
  3. 64 kg
  4. 68 kg
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Q104. The average of 5 consecutive even numbers is 50. Find the smallest of these numbers.

  1. 48
  2. 46
  3. 44
  4. 42
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Q105. A can do a piece of work in 15 days and B can do the same work in 30 days. How many days will they take to complete it working together?

  1. 12 days
  2. 10 days
  3. 8 days
  4. 15 days
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Q106. A can do a work in 12 days and B can do it in 18 days. They work together for 4 days and then A leaves. In how many days will B finish the remaining work?

  1. 6 days
  2. 10 days
  3. 8 days
  4. 9 days
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Q107. If 10 men or 15 women can finish a piece of work in 24 days, in how many days will 8 men and 12 women working together finish the same work?

  1. 12 days
  2. 15 days
  3. 18 days
  4. 20 days
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Q108. A car covers a distance of 360 km at a certain speed. If the speed is increased by 10 km/h, it takes 3 hours less to cover the same distance. Find the original speed of the car.

  1. 40 km/h
  2. 25 km/h
  3. 30 km/h
  4. 35 km/h
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Q109. A train 180 meters long crosses a telegraph post in 6 seconds. Find the speed of the train in km/h.

  1. 90 km/h
  2. 108 km/h
  3. 120 km/h
  4. 72 km/h
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Q110. A man travels from home to office at a speed of 15 km/h and returns at a speed of 30 km/h. Find his average speed for the entire round trip.

  1. 25 km/h
  2. 20 km/h
  3. 22.5 km/h
  4. 24 km/h
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Q111. Find the area of an equilateral triangle whose side measures 10 cm.

  1. 50√3 sq cm
  2. 25√2 sq cm
  3. 25√3 sq cm
  4. 100√3 sq cm
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Q112. The radius of a cylinder is 14 cm and its height is 10 cm. Find its curved surface area (Take π = 22/7).

  1. 880 sq cm
  2. 440 sq cm
  3. 660 sq cm
  4. 1760 sq cm
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Q113. Find the length of the longest rod that can be placed in a room of dimensions 12 m × 9 m × 8 m.

  1. 15 m
  2. 19 m
  3. 17 m
  4. 21 m
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Q114. Two unbiased dice are rolled simultaneously. Find the probability of getting a sum of exactly 8.

  1. 5/36
  2. 1/6
  3. 7/36
  4. 1/9
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Q115. A card is drawn at random from a well-shuffled pack of 52 playing cards. What is the probability that the drawn card is a red card or an ace?

  1. 7/13
  2. 15/26
  3. 1/2
  4. 9/13
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Directions: Fill in the blanks with the correct tense forms (Q116-Q118).

Q116. Fill in the blank with the correct tense form: "By the time we reach the theater, the movie _____ (start)."

  1. started
  2. will start
  3. has started
  4. will have started
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Q117. Identify the tense used in the following sentence: "She has been reading this novel since yesterday."

  1. Present Continuous
  2. Present Perfect
  3. Past Perfect Continuous
  4. Present Perfect Continuous
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Q118. Fill in the blank with the correct tense form: "If she _____ (know) the answer, she would have told us."

  1. had known
  2. knew
  3. has known
  4. knows
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Directions: Change the voice in the following sentences (Q119-Q121).

Q119. Change into passive voice: "The storm destroyed the bridge."

  1. The bridge has been destroyed by the storm.
  2. The bridge was destroyed by the storm.
  3. The bridge is destroyed by the storm.
  4. The bridge had destroyed by the storm.
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Q120. Change into active voice: "A new car was bought by them."

  1. They had bought a new car.
  2. They are buying a new car.
  3. They buy a new car.
  4. They bought a new car.
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Q121. Change into passive voice: "Open the door."

  1. Let the door be opened.
  2. The door must be opened.
  3. The door is opened.
  4. You are ordered to open.
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Directions: Convert the following sentences into indirect speech (Q122-Q124).

Q122. Change into indirect speech: "The scientist said, 'Gravity pulls objects towards the Earth.'"

  1. The scientist said that gravity had pulled objects towards the Earth.
  2. The scientist said that gravity pulls objects towards the Earth.
  3. The scientist stated gravity is pulling objects towards the Earth.
  4. The scientist said that gravity pulled objects towards the Earth.
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Q123. Change into indirect speech: "She said to him, 'Please bring me a cup of tea.'"

  1. She ordered him to bring her a cup of tea.
  2. She asked him if he could bring a cup of tea.
  3. She requested him to bring her a cup of tea.
  4. She told him to please bring a cup of tea.
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Q124. Change into indirect speech: "He said, 'I wrote a letter yesterday.'"

  1. He said that he wrote a letter the day before.
  2. He said that he had written a letter yesterday.
  3. He said that he had written a letter the day before.
  4. He said that he has written a letter the previous day.
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Directions: Fill in the blanks with the correct prepositions (Q125-Q128).

Q125. Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: "He is senior _____ my brother in service."

  1. from
  2. than
  3. over
  4. to
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Q126. Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: "She is proficient _____ Spanish."

  1. in
  2. with
  3. at
  4. on
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Q127. Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: "The suspect was accused _____ theft."

  1. of
  2. for
  3. with
  4. on
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Q128. Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: "The money was distributed _____ the five winners."

  1. between
  2. among
  3. with
  4. across
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Directions: Choose the correct SYNONYM for the given words (Q129-Q131).

Q129. What is the synonym of the word 'Eradicate'?

  1. Establish
  2. Promote
  3. Abolish
  4. Construct
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Q130. What is the synonym of the word 'Pensive'?

  1. Cheerful
  2. Thoughtful
  3. Careless
  4. Active
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Q131. What is the synonym of the word 'Tenacious'?

  1. Resolute
  2. Fragile
  3. Yielding
  4. Hesitant
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Directions: Choose the correct ANTONYM for the given words (Q132-Q134).

Q132. What is the antonym of the word 'Adversity'?

  1. Misfortune
  2. Prosperity
  3. Calamity
  4. Hardship
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Q133. What is the antonym of the word 'Spurious'?

  1. Fake
  2. Artificial
  3. Deceitful
  4. Authentic
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Q134. What is the antonym of the word 'Frugal'?

  1. Thrifty
  2. Economical
  3. Extravagant
  4. Careful
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Directions: Identify the correct meaning of the given Idioms/Phrases (Q135-Q138).

Q135. What is the meaning of the idiom 'To call it a day'?

  1. To declare a holiday
  2. To start a new job
  3. To stop working on something
  4. To argue with someone
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Q136. What is the meaning of the idiom 'A piece of cake'?

  1. A pleasant reward
  2. A very easy task
  3. A confusing situation
  4. A sweet memory
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Q137. What is the meaning of the idiom 'To spill the beans'?

  1. To drop something valuable
  2. To waste resources
  3. To cook a bad meal
  4. To reveal a secret prematurely
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Q138. What is the meaning of the idiom 'Under the weather'?

  1. Trapped in a storm
  2. Slightly unwell
  3. Facing severe criticism
  4. Hiding from someone
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Directions: Choose the best One-Word Substitution for the given descriptions (Q139-Q142).

Q139. What is the one-word substitution for "A person who is cent percent sure about everything and has high self-belief"?

  1. Pessimist
  2. Gullible
  3. Dogmatic
  4. Agnostic
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Q140. What is the one-word substitution for "An office with a high salary but no work"?

  1. Honorary
  2. Autocracy
  3. Sinecure
  4. Bureaucracy
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Q141. What is the one-word substitution for "The study of ancient societies through their material remains"?

  1. Archaeology
  2. Anthropology
  3. History
  4. Etymology
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Q142. What is the one-word substitution for "One who hates mankind"?

  1. Philanthropist
  2. Misogynist
  3. Introvert
  4. Misanthrope
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Directions: Spot the grammatical error in the following sentences (Q143-Q146).

Q143. Spot the error in the sentence: "One of the boys have broken the window."

  1. 'have' should be 'has'
  2. 'window' should be 'windows'
  3. 'boys' should be 'boy'
  4. No error
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Q144. Spot the error in the sentence: "Unless you do not study hard, you will fail the test."

  1. 'do not study' should be 'study'
  2. 'fail' should be 'failing'
  3. 'will fail' should be 'would fail'
  4. No error
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Q145. Spot the error in the sentence: "The scenery of Kashmir are very beautiful."

  1. 'scenery' should be 'sceneries'
  2. No error
  3. 'are' should be 'is'
  4. 'very' should be 'much'
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Q146. Spot the error in the sentence: "Neither of the two books were useful."

  1. 'books' should be 'book'
  2. 'were' should be 'was'
  3. 'useful' should be 'used'
  4. No error
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Directions: Answer the following questions based on the theory of Reading Comprehension (Q147-Q150).

Q147. In reading comprehension, what does the term 'Skimming' mean?

  1. Reading aloud to improve pronunciation
  2. Reading rapidly to find a specific date or name
  3. Reading slowly to memorize facts
  4. Reading rapidly to get a general overview of the text
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Q148. In a passage, what is the 'Main Idea' of a paragraph typically called when stated in a single sentence?

  1. Concluding Sentence
  2. Topic Sentence
  3. Supporting Detail
  4. Transitional Phrase
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Q149. If a passage states: "Despite heavy rains, the crops survived," what was the relationship between the rain and the crops?

  1. Comparison
  2. Cause and Effect
  3. Concession
  4. Chronological
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Q150. What does the term 'Scanning' mean in reading skills?

  1. Reading a book from cover to cover
  2. Reading rapidly to find specific pieces of information
  3. Evaluating the author's tone
  4. Understanding the underlying meaning

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Answer Key 01

Q.NoCorrect OptionCorrect Answer
Q1BManda
Q2DUpanishads
Q3ASitadhyaksha
Q4CMehrauli Iron Pillar
Q5BFiroz Shah Tughlaq
Q6CAurangzeb
Q7DLord Ripon
Q8ABal Gangadhar Tilak
Q9BBezbaruah
Q10CKhel
Q11BGaj-kar
Q12CPurandar Singha
Q13APiyoli Baruah
Q14DLakshminath Bezbaroa
Q15BPushpalata Das
Q16CDoddabetta
Q17BGarampani
Q18DKalbaishakhi
Q19ATropical Wet Evergreen Forests
Q20CKaveri River
Q21CBhangar
Q22BArticle 356
Q23DPrime Minister of India
Q24CArticle 108
Q25APresident of India
Q26CFirst Schedule
Q27BSecond Schedule
Q28DGhora Baruah
Q29BKhadar
Q30CBrahmaputra River
Q31DIyaruingam
Q32CNilmani Phookan Jr.
Q33BGunabhiram Barua
Q34CBhupen Hazarika
Q35DChali Dance
Q36BManjira
Q37CTea Tribes of Assam
Q38DGaro Tribe
Q39BHayagriva Madhava Temple
Q40CGero
Q41BGland, Switzerland
Q42DMount Kilimanjaro
Q43A1773
Q44BGallic Rooster
Q45CNairobi & Kenyan Shilling
Q46C42nd
Q47DHarshal Patel
Q48CGoa
Q49BDavid Baker, Demis Hassabis, and John Jumper
Q50DRanju Hazarika
Q51CAyushman Bharat Digital Mission
Q52BPM Internship Scheme
Q53BAstana, Kazakhstan
Q54DVijaya Rahatkar
Q55BDaljit Singh Chawdhary
Q56CLaw of Conservation of Energy
Q57CCoulomb
Q58DLimestone
Q59BSilver
Q60CHemoglobin
Q61AYes (The conclusion logically follows)
Q62CYes (The conclusion logically follows)
Q63BDBU
Q64C20-15-25
Q65CELBAT
Q66BDaughter
Q67CMaternal Uncle
Q68D13 km
Q69BSouth
Q70C48
Q71D25
Q72B30
Q73CMN
Q74CEV
Q75DF
Q76DEnglish
Q77A60 minutes
Q78CNo
Q79BYes
Q80DYes
Q81B9978
Q82D29
Q83B9
Q84B25
Q85B364
Q86B6
Q87B18:7
Q88CRs 1600
Q89D27
Q90A20%
Q91C6000
Q92B4:3
Q93BRs 1000
Q94B25%
Q95B36.25%
Q96C10%
Q97BRs 6600
Q98BRs 720
Q99CRs 3150
Q100ARs 10000
Q101B5%
Q102D30
Q103B65 kg
Q104B46
Q105B10 days
Q106C8 days
Q107B15 days
Q108C30 km/h
Q109B108 km/h
Q110B20 km/h
Q111C25√3 sq cm
Q112A880 sq cm
Q113C17 m
Q114A5/36
Q115A7/13
Q116Dwill have started
Q117DPresent Perfect Continuous
Q118Ahad known
Q119BThe bridge was destroyed by the storm.
Q120DThey bought a new car.
Q121ALet the door be opened.
Q122BThe scientist said that gravity pulls objects towards the Earth.
Q123CShe requested him to bring her a cup of tea.
Q124CHe said that he had written a letter the day before.
Q125Dto
Q126Ain
Q127Aof
Q128Bamong
Q129CAbolish
Q130BThoughtful
Q131AResolute
Q132BProsperity
Q133DAuthentic
Q134CExtravagant
Q135CTo stop working on something
Q136BA very easy task
Q137DTo reveal a secret prematurely
Q138BSlightly unwell
Q139CDogmatic
Q140CSinecure
Q141AArchaeology
Q142DMisanthrope
Q143A'have' should be 'has'
Q144A'do not study' should be 'study'
Q145C'are' should be 'is'
Q146B'were' should be 'was'
Q147DReading rapidly to get a general overview of the text
Q148BTopic Sentence
Q149CConcession
Q150BReading rapidly to find specific pieces of information

Detailed Solutions Free Demo

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Solution 1: Option B (Manda)
Manda is situated on the right bank of the Chenab River in the foothills of the Pir Panjal range in Jammu and Kashmir. It is considered the northernmost site of the Harappan civilization, establishing the vast geographical extent of the Indus Valley Culture.
[IMAGE REQUIRED]
Image File Name: indus_valley_extent.png
Image Placement: Explanation
Image Purpose: Visual representation of the geographical boundaries of the IVC showing Manda in the North, Daimabad in South, Suktagendor in West, and Alamgirpur in East.
Exact AI Prompt: A clean, educational map of the Indian subcontinent showing the geographical extent of the Indus Valley Civilization. Highlight four extreme points: Manda (North), Daimabad (South), Suktagendor (West), and Alamgirpur (East).
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Solution 2: Option D (Upanishads)
The Upanishads are late Vedic Sanskrit texts that supplied the basis of later Hindu philosophy. They are often referred to as 'Vedanta' which translates to the 'end of the Vedas', signifying that they represent the philosophical climax and spiritual core of the Vedic thought.
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Solution 3: Option A (Sitadhyaksha)
In the highly centralized Mauryan administration, the 'Sitadhyaksha' was the superintendent of agriculture who managed the crown lands (Sita). He was responsible for the cultivation of lands directly owned by the king using slaves, laborers, and prisoners.
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Solution 4: Option C (Mehrauli Iron Pillar)
The Mehrauli Iron Pillar, located in the Qutb complex in Delhi, is famous for its rust-resistant composition. It bears an inscription stating that it was erected as a standard in honor of Lord Vishnu by a king named Chandra, universally identified by historians as the Gupta emperor Chandragupta II.
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Solution 5: Option B (Firoz Shah Tughlaq)
Firoz Shah Tughlaq, who ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1351 to 1388, was a prolific builder of cities. He founded the city of Jaunpur (in modern-day Uttar Pradesh) and named it in memory of his cousin Muhammad bin Tughlaq, whose real name was Jauna Khan.
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Solution 6: Option C (Aurangzeb)
The Moti Masjid (Pearl Mosque) inside the Red Fort complex in Delhi was built by the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb from 1659-1660 for his personal use. Note: The other famous Moti Masjid located in the Agra Fort was built by Shah Jahan.
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Solution 7: Option D (Lord Ripon)
Lord Ripon is affectionately known as the 'Father of Local Self-Government' in India. His famous resolution of 1882 established rural and urban local bodies, laying the foundational democratic framework for municipalities and district boards across British India.
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Solution 8: Option A (Bal Gangadhar Tilak)
The Home Rule Movement in India was pioneered by two great leaders. Bal Gangadhar Tilak founded his Home Rule League in April 1916 at Belgaum (Pune headquarters), focusing his efforts in Maharashtra, Karnataka, Central Provinces, and Berar. Annie Besant launched her league later in September 1916 for the rest of India.
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Solution 9: Option B (Bezbaruah)
In the Ahom administrative setup, the 'Bezbaruah' was the royal physician. He acted as the superintendent of health and medicine, ensuring the well-being of the royal family and supervising the traditional medical practitioners (Bezes).
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Solution 10: Option C (Khel)
Under the Ahom Paik System, the adult male population was divided into units called 'Gots'. Several Gots were grouped together to form a larger company known as a 'Khel'. A Khel usually comprised 1000 to 5000 paiks and was administered by officers like Hazarikas, Rajkhowas, or Phukans depending on its size.
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Solution 11: Option B (Gaj-kar)
During the Ahom rule, natural resources were strictly monitored. 'Gaj-kar' or 'Hati-danda' was a specific royal tax levied on those who captured wild elephants in the forests. Elephants were crucial for the Ahom military and state prestige.
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Solution 12: Option C (Purandar Singha)
After the Treaty of Yandabo (1826), the British initially annexed Assam. However, due to administrative difficulties and local unrest, they reinstated Purandar Singha in 1833 as a tributary ruler over Upper Assam. He was finally deposed in 1838 for failing to pay the heavy annual tribute of Rs 50,000, bringing all of Assam directly under British control.
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Solution 13: Option A (Piyoli Baruah)
During the 1857 revolt, Maniram Dewan plotted to overthrow British rule in Assam and reinstall Kandarpeswar Singha. Piyoli Baruah was his chief associate executing the plot locally. Upon discovery, both Maniram Dewan and Piyoli Baruah were arrested and hanged publicly at Jorhat on February 26, 1858.
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Solution 14: Option D (Lakshminath Bezbaroa)
The Asam Chhatra Sanmilan (Assam Students' Conference) was a seminal student organization founded in 1916 in Guwahati. It played a massive role in shaping Assamese nationalism. Its first session was presided over by the literary giant Sahityarathi Lakshminath Bezbaroa.
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Solution 15: Option B (Pushpalata Das)
Pushpalata Das was a prominent Indian independence activist, social worker, and Gandhian from Assam. Recognizing her immense contribution to the freedom struggle and social upliftment, she was elected as the first Assamese woman to the Rajya Sabha in 1951.
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Solution 16: Option C (Doddabetta)
Doddabetta is the highest mountain in the Nilgiri Hills at 2,637 meters (8,652 feet). It is located in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu. Note: While Anamudi is the highest peak in the Western Ghats and South India overall, Doddabetta is specific to the Nilgiris.
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Solution 17: Option B (Garampani)
Garampani Wildlife Sanctuary, located in the Karbi Anglong district of Assam, is renowned for its naturally occurring hot water springs and waterfalls. The area is rich in biodiversity and represents significant geological geothermal activity in Northeast India.
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Solution 18: Option D (Kalbaishakhi)
Kalbaishakhi (Nor'westers) are severe pre-monsoon thunderstorms that occur in Bengal, Assam, and adjoining areas during the month of Baisakh (April-May). While they can cause massive destruction due to heavy rains and hail, they are also beneficial for the early cultivation of jute and paddy.
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Solution 19: Option A (Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests)
Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests flourish in areas receiving more than 250 cm of annual rainfall with high humidity. Found on the western slopes of the Western Ghats and heavily across Northeast India, these forests form dense multi-layered canopies that remain green year-round.
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Solution 20: Option C (Kaveri River)
The Kaveri (Cauvery) River originates at Talakaveri in the Brahmagiri range of the Western Ghats in Karnataka. It flows extensively through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, finally forming a wide and highly fertile delta before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
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Solution 21: Option C (Bhangar)
In the Northern Plains of India, the older alluvium deposits are known as Bhangar. This soil lies above the flood levels of the rivers and presents a terrace-like feature. It is generally less fertile compared to the newer alluvium and contains calcareous deposits locally known as 'Kankar'.
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Solution 22: Option B (Article 356)
Article 356 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to issue a proclamation of State Emergency (President's Rule) if they are satisfied that the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
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Solution 23: Option D (Prime Minister of India)
The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is the apex body for disaster management in India, established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005. The Prime Minister of India serves as its ex-officio Chairperson.
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Solution 24: Option C (Article 108)
Under Article 108 of the Constitution, if there is a legislative deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha over the passage of an ordinary bill, the President can summon a joint sitting of both Houses. This sitting is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
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Solution 25: Option A (President of India)
According to Article 124(6) of the Constitution, every person appointed to be a Judge of the Supreme Court shall, before entering upon their office, make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before the President, or some person appointed in that behalf by the President.
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Solution 26: Option C (First Schedule)
The First Schedule of the Indian Constitution comprehensively lists the states and union territories of India along with their respective territorial jurisdictions and boundaries. Any creation of a new state requires an amendment to this schedule.
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Solution 27: Option B (Second Schedule)
The Second Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions regarding the allowances, privileges, and emoluments of key constitutional functionaries including the President, Governors, Speakers, and Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
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Solution 28: Option D (Ghora Baruah)
In the Ahom state machinery, specialized officers handled different departments. The 'Ghora Baruah' was the superintendent of horses, responsible for the maintenance, procurement, and training of horses used in the royal cavalry.
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Solution 29: Option B (Khadar)
Khadar is the newer alluvium deposited by flooded rivers annually. It occupies the lower levels of the flood plains. Being replenished frequently with fine silt, it is extremely fertile and ideal for intensive agriculture.
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Solution 30: Option C (Brahmaputra River)
The Barail Range in Assam acts as a major water divide separating the Brahmaputra basin in the north from the Barak basin in the south. The streams and rivers originating from the northern slopes drain into the mighty Brahmaputra river system.
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Solution 31: Option D (Iyaruingam)
'Iyaruingam' (meaning 'People's Rule') is a masterpiece novel by Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya. Published in 1960, it deeply explores the socio-political turmoil, wartime experiences, and changing lives of the Tangkhul Naga community during the Japanese invasion in WWII. It won him the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1961.
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Solution 32: Option C (Nilmani Phookan Jr.)
Eminent Assamese poet Nilmani Phookan Jr. was a prominent voice of modern Assamese poetry, heavily influenced by French symbolism. He was respectfully referred to as 'Kavya Rishi'. He was honored with the 56th Jnanpith Award in 2021 for his lifetime contribution to literature.
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Solution 33: Option B (Gunabhiram Barua)
'Ram-Navami' (1857) was written by Gunabhiram Barua. It is recognized as the first modern Assamese play. It boldly tackled contemporary social issues, particularly advocating for the cause of widow remarriage, inspired by the Bengal Renaissance.
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Solution 34: Option C (Bhupen Hazarika)
Dr. Bhupen Hazarika, widely celebrated as 'Sudhakantha', is also known as the 'Geetibhaskar' (The Sun of Songs) in Assamese cultural history. A maestro of music, cinema, and poetry, he was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2019.
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Solution 35: Option D (Chali Dance)
The Sattriya dance framework encompasses strictly classified styles. The 'Chali' dance is associated with graceful, softer, and more feminine (Lasya) movements, traditionally performed depicting female characters or soft emotional expressions in the Satras.
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Solution 36: Option B (Manjira)
In Sattriya music and dance performances, rhythmic control (Tala) is primarily maintained using specific instruments. The traditional hand-held cymbals made of bell metal are known as 'Taal' or 'Manjira' (specifically Bhaatal or Khutitaal in Assam).
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Solution 37: Option C (Tea Tribes of Assam)
The 'Jhumur' dance is a highly energetic traditional folk dance predominantly performed by the Tea Tribes (Adivasi communities) of Assam. It involves girls dancing in synchronized formations while boys play the Madal (drums) and sing, heavily reflecting their cultural roots brought from central India.
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Solution 38: Option D (Garo Tribe)
The Garo tribe builds unique traditional dwelling houses known as 'Nokmong'. These are large, long bamboo and thatch structures built firmly on the ground (unlike the stilt houses of other tribes) and are designed to accommodate joint families and livestock.
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Solution 39: Option B (Hayagriva Madhava Temple)
The Hayagriva Madhava Temple in Hajo, Kamrup district, is an exceptional symbol of religious harmony. It is highly revered by Hindus as a shrine of Lord Vishnu (Hayagriva avatar), while Tibetan Buddhists widely believe it to be the exact site where Lord Buddha attained Mahaparinirvana.
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Solution 40: Option C (Gero)
The Mising community of Assam is celebrated for their exquisite handloom skills. The 'Gero' is a traditional wrapper or upper garment draped by Mising women, characteristically woven with prominent red, black, and white diamond-shaped geometric patterns.
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Solution 41: Option B (Gland, Switzerland)
The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) is a premier international non-governmental organization dedicated to wilderness preservation and reducing human impact on the environment. Its global headquarters is located in Gland, Switzerland.
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Solution 42: Option D (Mount Kilimanjaro)
Mount Kilimanjaro, a dormant volcano located in Tanzania, is the highest mountain in Africa and the highest single free-standing mountain above sea level in the world, standing majestically at 5,895 meters (19,341 ft).
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Solution 43: Option A (1773)
The Boston Tea Party occurred on December 16, 1773. It was a political protest by the Sons of Liberty in Boston, Massachusetts, where they dumped 342 chests of tea into the harbor to protest against the British Parliament's Tea Act of 1773.
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Solution 44: Option B (Gallic Rooster)
The Gallic Rooster (le coq gaulois) is the unofficial national symbol of France as a nation. Originating from a Latin pun on the word 'gallus', which meant both "a Gaul" and "a rooster", it has been used extensively on French flags, coins, and sports jerseys.
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Solution 45: Option C (Nairobi & Kenyan Shilling)
Kenya is an East African nation. Its vibrant capital and largest city is Nairobi. The official currency used for trade and commerce is the Kenyan Shilling (KES).
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Solution 46: Option C (42nd)
In the 12th edition of the International Intellectual Property (IP) Index 2024 released by the US Chamber of Commerce, India maintained its rank at 42nd out of 55 evaluated global economies, showcasing ongoing efforts to stabilize its IP framework.
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Solution 47: Option D (Harshal Patel)
In the IPL 2024 season, Harshal Patel, playing for the Punjab Kings, delivered an exceptional bowling performance and won the prestigious Purple Cap by taking the highest number of wickets (24 wickets) in the tournament.
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Solution 48: Option C (Goa)
The 37th edition of the National Games of India was hosted by the state of Goa from October to November 2023. This was the first time Goa hosted this premier multi-sport event. Maharashtra finished at the top of the medal tally.
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Solution 49: Option B (David Baker, Demis Hassabis, and John Jumper)
The 2024 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded to David Baker for computational protein design, and to Demis Hassabis and John Jumper of Google DeepMind for their revolutionary AI model (AlphaFold) capable of predicting complex protein structures.
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Solution 50: Option D (Ranju Hazarika)
Prolific Assamese author Ranju Hazarika was conferred the prestigious Sahitya Akademi Bal Sahitya Puraskar for the year 2024. He was recognized for his immense contribution to Assamese children's literature, specifically his novel 'Bipanna Bismoy Khel'.
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Solution 51: Option C (Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission)
The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) aims to create a seamless online platform to provide digital health IDs (ABHA cards) to citizens, ensuring secure and standardized access to medical records across healthcare facilities nationwide.
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Solution 52: Option B (PM Internship Scheme)
Announced in the Union Budget 2024, the PM Internship Scheme aims to provide on-the-job training and exposure to 1 crore youth over a period of 5 years by placing them as interns in the top 500 companies in India, along with a monthly stipend.
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Solution 53: Option B (Astana, Kazakhstan)
The 24th Summit of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Council of Heads of State was held in July 2024 in Astana, the capital of Kazakhstan. India was represented by the External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar.
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Solution 54: Option D (Vijaya Rahatkar)
Vijaya Rahatkar was appointed as the 9th Chairperson of the National Commission for Women (NCW) in late 2024, succeeding Rekha Sharma. The NCW is the statutory body advising the government on all policy matters affecting women.
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Solution 55: Option B (Daljit Singh Chawdhary)
Senior IPS officer Daljit Singh Chawdhary took over the additional charge as the Director General (DG) of the Border Security Force (BSF) in August 2024, following the premature repatriation of the former DG Nitin Agrawal.
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Solution 56: Option C (Law of Conservation of Energy)
The Law of Conservation of Energy states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed; it can only be transferred or transformed from one form to another. Therefore, in an isolated system lacking non-conservative forces like friction, total mechanical energy (Kinetic + Potential) remains absolutely constant.
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Solution 57: Option C (Coulomb)
The standard International System (SI) unit of electric charge is the Coulomb (C). It is formally defined as the amount of electricity transported in one second by a current of one Ampere.
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Solution 58: Option D (Limestone)
Calcium Carbonate (CaCO3) is naturally found in rocks as minerals calcite and aragonite. It is widely known by its common names such as limestone, chalk, or marble. It is used extensively in construction and medically as a dietary supplement or antacid.
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Solution 59: Option B (Silver)
Silver (Ag) holds the highest electrical conductivity, thermal conductivity, and reflectivity of any metal. However, due to its high cost, copper is more commonly used in everyday electrical wiring.
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Solution 60: Option C (Hemoglobin)
Hemoglobin is an iron-rich metalloprotein found in the red blood cells of all vertebrates. Its primary function is to bind with oxygen in the lungs and carry it through the bloodstream to the tissues and organs, returning carbon dioxide back to the lungs.
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Solution 61: Option A (Yes (The conclusion logically follows))
Step 1: Analyze Statement 1: "All men are humans". This means the set of Men is a strict subset of Humans.
Step 2: Analyze Statement 2: "All humans are mortal". This means the set of Humans is a strict subset of Mortals.
Step 3: Combining both: Men ⊂ Humans ⊂ Mortals.
Conclusion: Since all men fall inside the human boundary, and all humans fall inside the mortal boundary, it is definitively true that "All men are mortal". The conclusion logically follows.
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Solution 62: Option C (Yes (The conclusion logically follows))
Step 1: Statement 1: "Some books are papers". There is an intersection between Books and Papers.
Step 2: Statement 2: "No paper is a pencil". The set of Papers and the set of Pencils are completely disjoint (zero intersection).
Step 3: Evaluate Conclusion: We know there is a section of Books that are definitely Papers. Since no Paper can ever be a Pencil, those specific Books can never be Pencils.
Conclusion: Therefore, "Some books are not pencils" is a 100% logically valid statement.
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Solution 63: Option B (DBU)
Logic: Each letter in the given word is shifted by +1 (the immediate next letter in the English alphabet).
Step 1 (DOG): D(+1)=E, O(+1)=P, G(+1)=H -> EPH.
Step 2 (CAT): C(+1)=D, A(+1)=B, T(+1)=U.
Result: Therefore, 'CAT' is coded as DBU.
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Solution 64: Option C (20-15-25)
Logic: The code utilizes the standard numerical position of each alphabet (A=1, B=2 ... Z=26).
Step 1 (BOY): B=2, O=15, Y=25. Therefore, BOY = 2-15-25.
Step 2 (TOY): T=20, O=15, Y=25.
Result: Therefore, the code for 'TOY' is 20-15-25.
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Solution 65: Option C (ELBAT)
Logic: The word is simply coded by writing its letters in direct reverse order.
Step 1: CHAIR reversed is R-I-H-C-A.
Step 2: Applying the same rule to TABLE.
Result: TABLE reversed is E-L-B-A-T.
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Solution 66: Option B (Daughter)
Step 1: Break down the man's statement starting from the end: "my mother's only son".
Step 2: The only son of the man's mother is the man himself.
Step 3: Now insert this back into the statement: "She is the daughter of [myself]".
Conclusion: The lady is the daughter of the man.
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Solution 67: Option C (Maternal Uncle)
Step 1: Z is the father of W.
Step 2: Y is the wife of Z. This means Y is the mother of W.
Step 3: X is the brother of Y.
Conclusion: Since X is the brother of W's mother (Y), X is the maternal uncle of W.
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Solution 68: Option D (13 km)
Step 1: The man walks 12 km West (Base of a right-angled triangle).
Step 2: He turns North and walks 5 km (Perpendicular of the triangle).
Step 3: His displacement from the starting point forms the Hypotenuse.
Formula: Hypotenuse = √(Base2 + Perpendicular2)
Calculation: √(122 + 52) = √(144 + 25) = √169 = 13 km.
[IMAGE REQUIRED]
Image File Name: q68_direction.png
Image Placement: Explanation
Image Purpose: Visual proof of Pythagorean theorem applied to direction sense.
Exact AI Prompt: A clean mathematical diagram showing a starting point A. A line drawn straight West for 12 units to point B. A line drawn straight North from B for 5 units to point C. A dotted line connecting A and C labeled '13 km' demonstrating the hypotenuse.
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Solution 69: Option B (South)
Step 1: Initial direction = East (90° on a standard compass).
Step 2: Turns 90° counter-clockwise (Left). New direction = North (0°).
Step 3: Turns 180° clockwise. A 180° turn always results in facing the exact opposite direction.
Conclusion: The opposite of North is South. He is now facing South.
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Solution 70: Option C (48)
Logic: Each number is generated by multiplying the previous number by 2.
Step 1: 3 × 2 = 6
Step 2: 6 × 2 = 12
Step 3: 12 × 2 = 24
Final Step: 24 × 2 = 48.
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Solution 71: Option D (25)
Logic: The series represents the consecutive perfect squares of natural numbers.
Step 1: 12 = 1
Step 2: 22 = 4
Step 3: 32 = 9
Step 4: 42 = 16
Final Step: 52 = 25.
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Solution 72: Option B (30)
Logic: The difference between consecutive numbers is increasing by even numbers (+4, +6, +8, +10...).
Step 1: 2 + 4 = 6
Step 2: 6 + 6 = 12
Step 3: 12 + 8 = 20
Final Step: 20 + 10 = 30.
Alternate Logic: n × (n+1). (1×2=2, 2×3=6, 3×4=12, 4×5=20, 5×6=30).
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Solution 73: Option C (MN)
Logic: Analyze the first and second letters of each term separately. They jump by +3 positions.
First Letters: A (+3) → D (+3) → G (+3) → J (+3) → M.
Second Letters: B (+3) → E (+3) → H (+3) → K (+3) → N.
Result: The next term combines M and N to form 'MN'.
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Solution 74: Option C (EV)
Logic: Each term consists of a letter from the beginning of the alphabet paired with its corresponding letter from the end of the alphabet (Reverse Pairs).
1st Term: A (1st from start) and Z (1st from end).
2nd Term: B and Y.
3rd Term: C and X.
4th Term: D and W.
5th Term: E (5th from start) and V (5th from end).
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Solution 75: Option D (F)
Logic Breakdown of the Circular Seating Arrangement (Facing Center):
Let us assign 6 seats numbered 1 to 6 in a clockwise direction.
Step 1: Let B sit at Seat 1.
Step 2: A is immediate right of B. In a center-facing circle, right is counter-clockwise. Therefore, A sits at Seat 2.
Step 3: D is opposite to A. Since A is at Seat 2, D must be at Seat 5.
Step 4: C is between A (Seat 2) and E. For C to be strictly in the middle, C must be at Seat 3, forcing E to sit at Seat 4.
Step 5: Observe B (Seat 1) and E (Seat 4) are completely opposite each other, which perfectly satisfies seating rules.
Step 6: The only remaining empty chair is Seat 6. The only remaining person is F. Therefore, F takes Seat 6.
Conclusion: The person sitting to the immediate left (clockwise) of B (Seat 1) is at Seat 6, which is F.
[IMAGE REQUIRED]
Image File Name: q75_seating.png
Image Placement: Explanation
Image Purpose: Visual representation of the 6-person circular seating arrangement.
Exact AI Prompt: A clean 2D top-down diagram showing 6 chairs arranged in a circle facing inward. Label the chairs sequentially from bottom counter-clockwise: B, A, C, E, D, F. Draw arrows to show 'Immediate Right' and 'Immediate Left'.
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Solution 76: Option D (English)

Explanation:

Step 1: Let the 5 positions on the shelf be numbered 1 to 5 from top to bottom.
Step 2: Geography is at the top (Position 1).
Step 3: "History is between English and Science" implies the sequence is (English, History, Science) or (Science, History, English).
Step 4: "Hindi is next to English". Placing Hindi logically next to English without disrupting the History condition gives us the order from top to bottom: Geography, Hindi, English, History, Science.
Conclusion: The book in the exact middle (Position 3) is English.
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Solution 77: Option A (60 minutes)

Explanation:

Step 1: Time taken and the number of pipes are inversely proportional (More pipes = less time).
Step 2: Total work capacity required = 12 pipes × 30 minutes = 360 pipe-minutes.
Step 3: Time taken by 6 pipes = Total Work / 6 pipes = 360 / 6 = 60 minutes.
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Solution 78: Option C (No)

Explanation:

Step 1: The statement only says that exercise improves mental focus. It acts as a catalyst.
Step 2: It does NOT state that exercise is the only way to achieve mental focus.
Conclusion: Using extreme definitive words like "never" makes the conclusion logically invalid. The conclusion does not follow.
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Solution 79: Option B (Yes)

Explanation:

Step 1: The main premise establishes a universal rule: Every graduate is eligible.
Step 2: The minor premise establishes a fact: Sunil falls into the category of "graduate".
Conclusion: Since Sunil belongs to the subset of graduates, he automatically qualifies for the rule. The conclusion perfectly follows.
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Solution 80: Option D (Yes)

Explanation:

Step 1: The statement establishes a direct cause-and-effect condition: Cause (Electric supply cut) → Effect (Fan stops).
Step 2: The premise confirms that the specific cause (Electric supply cut) has occurred.
Conclusion: Therefore, the guaranteed effect must happen. The fan has stopped working.
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Solution 81: Option B (9978)

Explanation:

Step 1: The greatest 4-digit number without repetition of digits is formed by arranging the largest digits in descending order: 9876.
Step 2: The smallest 3-digit number without repetition of digits is formed by arranging the smallest digits in ascending order (cannot start with 0): 102.
Step 3: Find their sum: 9876 + 102 = 9978.
Note: If digits were allowed to repeat, it would be 9999 + 100 = 10099. The rule "without repetition" changes the outcome.
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Solution 82: Option D (29)

Explanation:

Step 1: Let the five consecutive odd integers be x, x+2, x+4, x+6, and x+8.
Step 2: Sum = 5x + 20 = 125.
Step 3: 5x = 105 → x = 21.
Step 4: The integers are 21, 23, 25, 27, and 29.
Alternative Shortcut: The average of an odd number of consecutive integers is exactly the middle term. Average = 125 / 5 = 25. Therefore, the middle term is 25. The series is 21, 23, 25, 27, 29. The largest is 29.
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Solution 83: Option B (9)

Explanation:

Step 1: Find the units digit of 740. The cyclicity of 7 is 4 (7, 9, 3, 1). Since the power 40 is perfectly divisible by 4, it falls on the last cycle unit, which is 1.
Step 2: Find the units digit of 915. The cyclicity of 9 is 2. (9 for odd powers, 1 for even powers). Since 15 is an odd power, the units digit is 9.
Step 3: Multiply their units digits: 1 × 9 = 9.
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Solution 84: Option B (25)

Explanation:

Step 1: Perform prime factorization for each number.
75 = 3 × 52
125 = 53
175 = 7 × 52
Step 2: HCF is the product of the smallest power of each common prime factor.
Step 3: The only common prime factor is 5. Its smallest power is 52.
Result: HCF = 25.
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Solution 85: Option B (364)

Explanation:

Step 1: To find the smallest number perfectly divisible by 18, 24, and 30, we must find their LCM.
Step 2: LCM of 18, 24, and 30 = 360.
Step 3: The question states the number leaves a remainder of 4 in each case. Therefore, add the remainder to the LCM.
Result: Required Number = LCM + Remainder = 360 + 4 = 364.
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Solution 86: Option B (6)

Explanation:

Step 1: Use the standard property of numbers: LCM × HCF = Product of the two numbers.
Step 2: Substitute the given values into the formula: 180 × HCF = 1080.
Step 3: HCF =
1080180
= 6.
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Solution 87: Option B (18:7)

Explanation:

Step 1: Given the ratio x:y = 5:8, we can assume the values as x = 5k and y = 8k (where k is a common multiple).
Step 2: Substitute these values into the expression (2x + y) : (3x - y).
Numerator: 2(5k) + 8k = 10k + 8k = 18k.
Denominator: 3(5k) - 8k = 15k - 8k = 7k.
Step 3: The ratio is 18k : 7k. The 'k' cancels out, leaving 18:7.
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Solution 88: Option C (Rs 1600)

Explanation:

Step 1: The total amount of Rs 4800 is divided into parts based on the ratio 3:4:5.
Step 2: Total ratio parts = 3 + 4 + 5 = 12 parts.
Step 3: Value of 1 part =
480012
= Rs 400.
Step 4: B's share corresponds to 4 parts. Therefore, B's share = 4 × 400 = Rs 1600.
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Solution 89: Option D (27)

Explanation:

Step 1: Let the third proportional to 12 and 18 be 'x'.
Step 2: By the definition of continuous proportion: 12 : 18 :: 18 : x.
Step 3: Product of extremes = Product of means. Therefore, 12x = 18 × 18.
Step 4: x =
32412
= 27.
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Solution 90: Option A (20%)

Explanation:

Step 1: Use the standard shortcut formula for maintaining a constant product (Area = Length × Width).
Formula: Required Decrease % = [ R / (100 + R) ] × 100, where R is the percentage increase.
Step 2: Substitute R = 25.
Calculation: [ 25 / (100 + 25) ] × 100 = (25 / 125) × 100 =
15
× 100 = 20%.
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Solution 91: Option C (6000)

Explanation:

Step 1: Let the total number of votes polled be 100%.
Step 2: The winning candidate secured 55% of the votes. This implies the losing candidate secured (100% - 55%) = 45% of the votes.
Step 3: The difference in their vote percentages is their winning margin: 55% - 45% = 10%.
Step 4: We are given that the winning margin is 600 votes. Therefore, 10% of Total Votes = 600.
Conclusion: 100% of Total Votes = 600 × 10 = 6000.
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Solution 92: Option B (4:3)

Explanation:

Step 1: Formulate the equation based on the given condition: 18% of A = 24% of B.
Step 2: This can be written as: 18 × A = 24 × B.
Step 3: Rearranging for the ratio A/B: A/B = 24 / 18.
Step 4: Simplify the fraction by dividing both the numerator and denominator by 6:
43
. The ratio A:B is 4:3.
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Solution 93: Option B (Rs 1000)

Explanation:

Step 1: Let the Original Cost Price (CP) be 100x. The initial profit is 20%, so Original Selling Price (SP) = 120x.
Step 2: If he bought it for 10% less, the New CP = 90x.
Step 3: At this New CP, he gains 40%. The profit amount = 40% of 90x = 36x. So, New SP = 90x + 36x = 126x.
Step 4: The question states he sold it for Rs 60 more than the Original SP. Therefore: New SP - Original SP = 60.
Step 5: 126x - 120x = 60 → 6x = 60 → x = 10.
Result: Original CP = 100x = 100 × 10 = Rs 1000.
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Solution 94: Option B (25%)

Explanation:

Step 1: Let the CP of 1 book be Rs 1. So, CP of 24 books = Rs 24.
Step 2: Given: SP of 24 books = CP of 30 books. Since CP of 30 books = Rs 30, SP of 24 books = Rs 30.
Step 3: Analyzing the transaction of 24 books: CP = Rs 24, SP = Rs 30.
Step 4: Profit = SP - CP = 30 - 24 = Rs 6.
Step 5: Profit % = (Profit / CP) × 100 =
624
× 100 = 25%.
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Solution 95: Option B (36.25%)

Explanation:

Step 1: Use the successive discount formula: Equivalent Discount = X + Y - (X × Y) / 100.
Step 2: Substitute X = 15 and Y = 25.
Calculation: 15 + 25 - (15 × 25) / 100 = 40 - (375 / 100) = 40 - 3.75 = 36.25%.
Alternative: Let MP = 100. After 15% discount, SP = 85. After a further 25% discount on 85 (which is 21.25), Final SP = 63.75. Total Discount = 100 - 63.75 = 36.25%.
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Solution 96: Option C (10%)

Explanation:

Step 1: Let the Principal sum be P.
Step 2: Since the amount triples, Final Amount (A) = 3P.
Step 3: Simple Interest (SI) earned = Amount - Principal = 3P - P = 2P.
Step 4: Apply the SI formula: SI = (P × R × T) / 100.
2P = (P × R × 20) / 100. The 'P' cancels out.
2 = 20R / 100 → 2 = R / 5 → R = 10%.
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Solution 97: Option B (Rs 6600)

Explanation:

Step 1: In Simple Interest, the interest earned each year remains constant.
Step 2: Interest earned in 2 years (from year 3 to year 5) = Amount in 5 years - Amount in 3 years = Rs 9600 - Rs 8400 = Rs 1200.
Step 3: Interest earned in 1 year = 1200 / 2 = Rs 600.
Step 4: Interest earned in the first 3 years = 600 × 3 = Rs 1800.
Step 5: Principal = Amount in 3 years - Interest for 3 years = 8400 - 1800 = Rs 6600.
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Solution 98: Option B (Rs 720)

Explanation:

Step 1: Always convert the time period into years for the SI formula. T = 4 months =
412
year =
13
year.
Step 2: Apply the formula: SI = (P × R × T) / 100.
Step 3: SI = [36000 × 6 × (1/3)] / 100.
Calculation: SI = (36000 × 2) / 100 = 72000 / 100 = Rs 720.
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Solution 99: Option C (Rs 3150)

Explanation:

Step 1: Formula for Amount in Compound Interest: A = P(1 + R/100)T.
Step 2: A = 15000(1 + 10/100)2 = 15000(1.1)2.
Step 3: A = 15000 × 1.21 = Rs 18150.
Step 4: Compound Interest (CI) = Amount - Principal = 18150 - 15000 = Rs 3150.
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Solution 100: Option A (Rs 10000)

Explanation:

Step 1: The direct formula for the difference between CI and SI for exactly 2 years is: Difference = P × (R/100)2.
Step 2: Substitute the given values: 25 = P × (5/100)2.
Step 3: 25 = P × (1/20)2 = P × (1/400).
Step 4: P = 25 × 400 = Rs 10000.
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Solution 101: Option B (5%)

Explanation:

Step 1: Use the formula A = P(1 + R/100)T.
Step 2: 2205 = 2000(1 + R/100)2.
Step 3: (1 + R/100)2 = 2205 / 2000. Divide numerator and denominator by 5.
Step 4: (1 + R/100)2 = 441 / 400.
Step 5: Taking the square root on both sides: 1 + R/100 = 21 / 20.
Step 6: R/100 = 21/20 - 1 = 1/20 → R = 100 / 20 = 5%.
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Solution 102: Option D (30)

Explanation:

Step 1: The even numbers from 20 to 40 form an Arithmetic Progression (AP) with a common difference of 2.
Step 2: In any strictly uniform Arithmetic Progression, the average is always equal to the average of the first and last terms.
Step 3: Average = (First Term + Last Term) / 2 = (20 + 40) / 2 = 60 / 2 = 30.
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Solution 103: Option B (65 kg)

Explanation:

Traditional Method: Total initial weight = 19 × 45 = 855 kg. Total new weight (20 people) = 20 × 46 = 920 kg. Teacher's weight = 920 - 855 = 65 kg.
Shortcut Method:
Step 1: The teacher brings their base weight of 45 kg (to match the old average).
Step 2: The teacher also brings extra weight to increase the average of all 20 individuals by 1 kg each.
Step 3: Extra weight = 20 people × 1 kg = 20 kg.
Conclusion: Teacher's weight = Base Average + Extra Weight = 45 + 20 = 65 kg.
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Solution 104: Option B (46)

Explanation:

Step 1: The average of an odd number of consecutive integers (or even/odd integers) is always the exact middle term.
Step 2: Therefore, the 3rd (middle) number is 50.
Step 3: Since they are consecutive even numbers, the numbers before it are 48 and 46. The numbers after it are 52 and 54.
Result: The series is 46, 48, 50, 52, 54. The smallest is 46.
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Solution 105: Option B (10 days)

Explanation:

Step 1: Using the LCM Method. Total Work = LCM of 15 and 30 = 30 units.
Step 2: Efficiency of A = 30 / 15 = 2 units/day.
Step 3: Efficiency of B = 30 / 30 = 1 unit/day.
Step 4: Combined Efficiency of (A + B) = 2 + 1 = 3 units/day.
Conclusion: Total time taken together = Total Work / Combined Efficiency = 30 / 3 = 10 days.
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Solution 106: Option C (8 days)

Explanation:

Step 1: Let Total Work = LCM of (12, 18) = 36 units.
Step 2: A's efficiency = 36/12 = 3 units/day. B's efficiency = 36/18 = 2 units/day. Combined efficiency = 5 units/day.
Step 3: Work done together in 4 days = 4 × 5 = 20 units.
Step 4: Remaining work = 36 - 20 = 16 units.
Step 5: After A leaves, B completes the remaining work alone. Time taken by B = Remaining Work / B's Efficiency = 16 / 2 = 8 days.
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Solution 107: Option B (15 days)

Explanation:

Step 1: Given that 10 Men = 15 Women (since both finish the work in 24 days). Simplifying the efficiency ratio: 2 Men = 3 Women, or 1 Man = 1.5 Women.
Step 2: Convert the target workforce entirely into Women to simplify calculations. 8 Men and 12 Women = 8(1.5 Women) + 12 Women = 12 Women + 12 Women = 24 Women.
Step 3: Apply the M1 × D1 = M2 × D2 chain rule.
Step 4: 15 Women × 24 Days = 24 Women × D2 Days.
Step 5: D2 = (15 × 24) / 24 = 15 days.
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Solution 108: Option C (30 km/h)

Explanation:

Step 1: Let the original speed be v km/h. Original Time = 360 / v.
Step 2: New Speed = v + 10. New Time = 360 / (v + 10).
Step 3: The difference in time is 3 hours: (360 / v) - [360 / (v + 10)] = 3.
Step 4: Divide the entire equation by 3 to simplify: (120 / v) - [120 / (v + 10)] = 1.
Step 5: Solving the quadratic equation yields v2 + 10v - 1200 = 0. Factors are +40 and -30. Speed cannot be negative, so v = 30 km/h.
Alternative: Test the options. If v = 30, Time = 360/30 = 12 hrs. New Speed = 40, New Time = 360/40 = 9 hrs. Difference = 3 hrs. Verified!
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Solution 109: Option B (108 km/h)

Explanation:

Step 1: When a train crosses a stationary pole/post, the total distance covered equals the length of the train itself.
Step 2: Speed in m/s = Distance / Time = 180 meters / 6 seconds = 30 m/s.
Step 3: To convert m/s to km/h, multiply by the factor 18/5.
Calculation: 30 × (18/5) = 6 × 18 = 108 km/h.
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Solution 110: Option B (20 km/h)

Explanation:

Step 1: Average speed is NOT the simple average of two speeds. When the distance traveled is equal in both directions, use the harmonic mean formula.
Formula: Average Speed = (2ab) / (a + b), where 'a' and 'b' are the two speeds.
Step 2: Substitute a = 15 and b = 30.
Calculation: (2 × 15 × 30) / (15 + 30) = 900 / 45 = 20 km/h.
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Solution 111: Option C (25√3 sq cm)

Explanation:

Step 1: The formula for the Area of an Equilateral Triangle is: Area =
√34
× a2, where 'a' is the side.
Step 2: Substitute a = 10. Area =
√34
× (10)2.
Step 3: Area =
√34
× 100 = 25√3 sq cm.
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Solution 112: Option A (880 sq cm)

Explanation:

Step 1: The formula for the Curved Surface Area (CSA) of a cylinder is 2πrh.
Step 2: Substitute the given values: 2 × (22/7) × 14 × 10.
Calculation: The 7 in the denominator cancels out with 14, leaving 2. The expression becomes 2 × 22 × 2 × 10 = 88 × 10 = 880 sq cm.
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Solution 113: Option C (17 m)

Explanation:

Step 1: The longest rod that can be placed in a rectangular room (cuboid) corresponds to its space diagonal.
Formula: Diagonal = √(l2 + b2 + h2).
Step 2: Substitute dimensions (12, 9, 8): Diagonal = √(122 + 92 + 82).
Calculation: √(144 + 81 + 64) = √289.
Result: Since 17 × 17 = 289, the length is 17 m.
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Solution 114: Option A (5/36)

Explanation:

Step 1: When two dice are rolled, total possible outcomes = 6 × 6 = 36.
Step 2: Identify the favorable outcomes where the sum of the top faces equals 8. The valid pairs are: (2,6), (3,5), (4,4), (5,3), and (6,2).
Step 3: The number of favorable outcomes is 5.
Result: Probability = Favorable Outcomes / Total Outcomes = 5/36.
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Solution 115: Option A (7/13)

Explanation:

Step 1: Total cards in a deck = 52. Number of red cards = 26 (Hearts and Diamonds).
Step 2: Number of aces = 4. However, 2 of these aces are already red (Ace of Hearts, Ace of Diamonds) and are counted in the 26 red cards.
Step 3: Additional favorable cards (black aces) = 2.
Step 4: Total favorable outcomes = 26 (reds) + 2 (black aces) = 28.
Result: Probability = 28/52 = 7/13.
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Solution 116: Option D (will have started)

Explanation: The sentence discusses an action that will be fully completed before another action takes place in the future. "By the time" is a strong indicator of the Future Perfect Tense ("will have + past participle"). Thus, 'will have started' is grammatically accurate.

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Solution 117: Option D (Present Perfect Continuous)

Explanation: The structure "has/have been + verb-ing" combined with a time reference (since yesterday) indicates an action that started in the past and is still actively continuing in the present. This defines the Present Perfect Continuous Tense.

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Solution 118: Option A (had known)

Explanation: This is a Type 3 Conditional sentence, referring to an impossible or hypothetical condition in the past. The grammatical structure dictates that the 'If' clause must be in the Past Perfect Tense (had + past participle), followed by a main clause using 'would have + past participle'. Hence, 'had known' is correct.

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Solution 119: Option B (The bridge was destroyed by the storm.)

Explanation: The active sentence is in the Simple Past Tense. To convert it into passive voice, the object (the bridge) becomes the subject, followed by the past 'be' verb (was), the past participle of the main verb (destroyed), and the 'by' phrase indicating the doer (by the storm).

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Solution 120: Option D (They bought a new car.)

Explanation: The sentence is in the Passive Voice in the Simple Past Tense ("was bought"). To convert it back to Active Voice, bring the doer 'them' to the subject position as 'They', use the V2 form of the verb 'bought', and move the subject 'a new car' to the object position.

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Solution 121: Option A (Let the door be opened.)

Explanation: "Open the door" is an imperative sentence (a command). The standard grammatical rule for changing such commands into passive voice uses the structure: Let + Object + be + Past Participle (V3). Hence, "Let the door be opened."

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Solution 122: Option B (The scientist said that gravity pulls objects towards the Earth.)

Explanation: While converting from direct to indirect speech, if the quoted speech states a universal truth, scientific fact, or habitual action, its tense remains completely unchanged, regardless of the reporting verb being in the past tense.

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Solution 123: Option C (She requested him to bring her a cup of tea.)

Explanation: The word 'Please' strongly indicates a polite request. Therefore, the reporting verb "said to" changes to "requested". Furthermore, the word 'Please' is dropped in the indirect speech, and the verb connects with the infinitive 'to'.

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Solution 124: Option C (He said that he had written a letter the day before.)

Explanation: When the reporting verb is in the past tense, the Simple Past tense in the quoted speech changes to Past Perfect (wrote → had written). Additionally, the time marker 'yesterday' must be changed to 'the day before' or 'the previous day'.

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Solution 125: Option D (to)

Explanation: Certain Latin comparatives ending in '-ior' (like senior, junior, superior, inferior, prior, anterior) are always followed by the preposition 'to', never 'than'.

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Solution 126: Option A (in)

Explanation: The adjective 'proficient', which means highly skilled or competent, is followed by the fixed preposition 'in' when referring to a subject or skill (e.g., proficient in English, proficient in math).

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Solution 127: Option A (of)

Explanation: In standard English grammar, the verb 'accused' takes the fixed preposition 'of' when charging someone with a crime or fault (e.g., accused of theft, accused of murder).

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Solution 128: Option B (among)

Explanation: The preposition 'between' is typically used when dividing something involving exactly two distinct parties. 'Among' is strictly used when distributing something to more than two parties (in this case, five winners).

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Solution 129: Option C (Abolish)

Explanation: To 'Eradicate' means to destroy completely or put an end to something permanently (e.g., eradicating a disease). 'Abolish' shares a highly similar meaning, often used in the context of formally ending laws or systems.

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Solution 130: Option B (Thoughtful)

Explanation: The word 'Pensive' implies being engaged in deep, serious, and often slightly melancholy thought. Therefore, 'Thoughtful' is the most accurate synonym provided in the options.

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Solution 131: Option A (Resolute)

Explanation: A 'Tenacious' person is one who is very determined, persistent, and keeps a firm hold on their goals or ideas. 'Resolute' perfectly captures this unwavering determination.

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Solution 132: Option B (Prosperity)

Explanation: 'Adversity' refers to a difficult, unpleasant, or impoverished situation (hardship/misfortune). Its direct opposite (antonym) is 'Prosperity', which means living in a state of success, wealth, and good fortune.

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Solution 133: Option D (Authentic)

Explanation: 'Spurious' means something that is false, fake, or not being what it purports to be. The perfect antonym is 'Authentic', which means genuine and true.

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Solution 134: Option C (Extravagant)

Explanation: 'Frugal' characterizes a person who is very careful with their money, thrifty, and economical, avoiding waste. Its exact opposite is 'Extravagant', someone who spends money recklessly and wastefully.

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Solution 135: Option C (To stop working on something)

Explanation: The idiom 'To call it a day' is commonly used in professional environments to signify that you are finished working on a task for the present day and plan to leave or rest.

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Solution 136: Option B (A very easy task)

Explanation: If something is described as 'A piece of cake', it simply means that the task is remarkably easy or effortless to accomplish.

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Solution 137: Option D (To reveal a secret prematurely)

Explanation: The idiom 'To spill the beans' means to accidentally or purposefully disclose secret or confidential information before it was supposed to be known.

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Solution 138: Option B (Slightly unwell)

Explanation: When someone says they are feeling 'Under the weather', it is a colloquial expression meaning they are feeling slightly sick, ill, or not operating at full health.

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Solution 139: Option C (Dogmatic)

Explanation: A 'Dogmatic' person asserts their opinions in an authoritative, arrogant manner, holding an unshakable belief that they are absolutely correct and everyone else is wrong, regardless of evidence.

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Solution 140: Option C (Sinecure)

Explanation: A 'Sinecure' is a position or office requiring little to no actual work, duty, or responsibility, but yielding high financial benefit, status, or salary.

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Solution 141: Option A (Archaeology)

Explanation: 'Archaeology' is the scientific study of human history and prehistory through the excavation of sites and the rigorous analysis of physical remains, artifacts, and architecture.

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Solution 142: Option D (Misanthrope)

Explanation: The word 'Misanthrope' stems from Greek (misos = hatred, anthropos = mankind). It describes a person who fundamentally dislikes humankind and actively avoids human society.

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Solution 143: Option A ('have' should be 'has')

Explanation: The grammatical rule states that the phrase "One of the + Plural Noun" must always be followed by a Singular Verb, because the true subject is 'One', not the 'boys'. Therefore, 'have' should be replaced with 'has'.

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Solution 144: Option A ('do not study' should be 'study')

Explanation: The word 'Unless' inherently means "if not" and carries a negative connotation. Therefore, using another negative like "do not" in the same clause creates a double negative, which is grammatically incorrect. It should simply be: "Unless you study hard".

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Solution 145: Option C ('are' should be 'is')

Explanation: In English grammar, 'scenery' is an uncountable noun. Uncountable nouns always take a singular verb and cannot be pluralized (you cannot say 'sceneries'). Thus, the verb 'are' must be changed to 'is'.

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Solution 146: Option B ('were' should be 'was')

Explanation: According to Subject-Verb Agreement rules, words like 'Neither', 'Either', 'Each', and 'Everyone' are singular distributives. Therefore, the phrase "Neither of the two books" must take a singular verb. 'were' must be changed to 'was'.

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Solution 147: Option D (Reading rapidly to get a general overview of the text)

Explanation: Skimming is a fundamental reading comprehension technique where the reader rapidly runs their eyes over the text to grasp the main ideas, gist, and general overview without reading every single word.

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Solution 148: Option B (Topic Sentence)

Explanation: A Topic Sentence is usually the first or second sentence of a paragraph. It directly states the paragraph's main idea or central focus, guiding the reader on what the rest of the supporting details will discuss.

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Solution 149: Option C (Concession)

Explanation: The word "Despite" indicates a relationship of concession or contrast. It acknowledges a condition (heavy rains, which normally damages crops) but immediately contrasts it with an unexpected outcome (the crops survived).

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Solution 150: Option B (Reading rapidly to find specific pieces of information)

Explanation: Unlike skimming (reading for a general idea), Scanning involves moving your eyes quickly down a page seeking specific details, keywords, names, or numbers, entirely ignoring the broader context of the passage.

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